prove that 0!=1

Asked by ritamkumar | 12th Oct, 2009, 05:53: AM

Expert Answer:

n!=n*[(n-1)!]

put n=1, you have the answer. another proof is there, schema proof, which is a bit long, but for the time being this should be good enough for you.

Answered by  | 12th Oct, 2009, 09:17: AM

Queries asked on Sunday & after 7pm from Monday to Saturday will be answered after 12pm the next working day.