plz explain this to me
Asked by lovemaan5500 | 19th Nov, 2017, 06:18: PM
- Mechanical advantage reduces gradually due to the weight and friction of the moving parts of a machine.
- Whereas, the velocity ratio of a machine always remains constant.
- This is the reason why mechanical advantage in a practical machine is always less that velocity ratio.
- Another reason is that the efficiency of a machine is given by the ratio of mechanical advantage to velocity ratio.
- Thus, if mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio, it will mean that the machine is 100% efficient which is practically impossible.
Answered by Abhijeet Mishra | 20th Nov, 2017, 01:36: PM
- Are actual and practical machines the same? If yes then is the output energy less than the input energy?
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- What is the Velocity ratio of Class I Lever ?
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