Sir, you had given the answer that The range of f(x)=1+x^2+x^3 is the set of all values that f(x) can take .that is every element of codomain is related to element of domain is called question is that “At what value of x , f(x) =0 means Does 0Îrange has preimage  (x) in the domain ? “ Because you had written the range is -∞ To ∞ and 0Î(-∞,∞)

Asked by Kalyanrao Chavan | 2nd Jun, 2014, 06:25: PM

Expert Answer:

Let us observe the following graph:
The given graph passes through the y-axis at x=0 and the value of the function at x=0 is y=1.
Similarly, it passes through the x-axis at y=0 and the value of x is approximately, x = -1.45.
Thus, at x = -1.45, f(x) = 0.
I hope i have cleared your doubt to some extent.
If, not, please post your query once again.

Answered by Vimala Ramamurthy | 3rd Jun, 2014, 09:44: AM