Question Paper (Section wise)
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1) If the focal length of objectives lens is increased then magnifying power of :-
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microscope will increase but that of telescope
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microscope and telescope both will increase
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microscope and telescope both will decrease
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microscope will decrease but that of telescope increase
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2) The angle of a prism is ‘A’. One of its refracting surface is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incident 2A on the first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index µ, of the prism is –
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2 sin A
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2 cos A
-
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tan A
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3) When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work functions of the metal is –
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0.65 eV
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1.0 eV
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1.3 eV
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1.5 eV
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4) If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 s its previous value, the percentage change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is –
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25
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75
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60
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50
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5) Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å. Number of spectral lines in the resultant spectrum emitted will be
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3
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2
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6
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10
-
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6) The binding energy per nucleon of
and
nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In the nuclear reaction
, the value of energy Q released is : -
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19.6 MeV
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-2.4 MeV
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8.4 MeV
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17.3 MeV
-
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7) A radio isotope ‘X’ with a half life 1.4 × 109 years decays to ‘Y’ which is stable. A sample of the rock from a cave was found to contain ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the ratio 1 : 7. The age of the rock is-
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1.96 × 109 years
-
3.92 × 109 years
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4.20 × 109 years
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8.40 × 109 years
-
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8) The given graph represents V-I characteristic for a semiconductor device.
Which of the following statement is correct?
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It is V-I characteristic for solar cell where, point A represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit current.
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It is for a solar cell and point A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively
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It is for photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current respectively.
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It is for a LED and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and short circuit current, respectively.
-
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9) The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on:
a) type of semiconductor material
b) amount of doping
c) temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
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(a) and (b) only
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(b) only
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(b) and (c) only
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(a), (b) and (c)
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10) A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats / s, when sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz, the second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz, the unknown is -
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260 Hz
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254 Hz
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246 Hz
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240 Hz
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11) A coil having self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb decrease when-
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and iron rod is inserted in the coil
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frequency of the AC source is decreased
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number of turns in the coil is reduced
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A capacitance of reactance XC = XL is included in the same circuit.
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12) Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal length, the equilibrium separation between them is e. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become-
-
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13) If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then the following statements is not true:
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Pressure change will be maximum at both ends
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Open end will be antinode
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Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
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All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
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14) When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0 towards west. When it is projected towards north with a speed v0 it moves with an initial acceleration 3a0 towards west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are:
-
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15) A wire loop is rotated in magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced e. m. f. is -
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six s per revolution
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once per revolution
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twice per revolution
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four s per revolution
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16) A uniform force of
newton acts on a particle of mass 2 kg. Hence the particle is displaced from position
meter to position
meter. The work done by the force on the particle is -
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15 J
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9 J
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6 J
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13 J
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17) The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on-
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angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
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Viscosity
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surface tension
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Density
-
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18) Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2kg are situated on x-axis at distance 1 m, 2m, 4m, 8m…., respectively, from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this system at the origin will be-
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-4 G
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-G
-
-
-
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19) A concave mirror of focal length ‘f1’ is placed at a distance of ‘d’ from a convex lens of focal length ‘f2’ A beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens-convex lens-concave mirror combination returns to infinity. The distance ‘d’ must real:
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2f1 + f2
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-2f1 + f2
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f1 + f2
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-f1 + f2
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20) When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index.
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greater than that of glass
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less than that of glass
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equal to that of glass
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less than one
-
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21) An α-particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83 cm in the presence of a magnetic field of 0.25 Wb/m2. The de Broglie wavelength associated with the particle will be:
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Å
-
0.01 Å
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1 Å
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0.01 Å
-
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22) Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential is measured to be 3.57V. The threshold frequency of the material is:
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1.6 × 1015 Hz
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2.5 × 1015 Hz
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4 × 1015 Hz
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5 × 1015 Hz
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23) A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient converting electrical energy to light, the number of photon of yellow light it emits per second is:-
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62 × 1015 Hz
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3 × 1019 Hz
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1.5 × 1020
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6 × 1018
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24) Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to seconds excited state and then from second excited to the first excited state. The ration of the wavelengths λ1: λ2 emitted in the two cases:
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27/5
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20/7
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7/5
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27/20
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25) An electron of stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the atom acquired a result of photon emission will be:
-
-
-
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(m is the mass of the electron, R, Rydberg constant and h Planck’s constant)
-
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26) If the nuclear radius of 27 Al is 3.6 Fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of 64Cu in Fermi is:
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4.8
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3.6
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2.4
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1.2
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27) Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is:-
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0
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0.5 a
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0.75 a
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Zero
-
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28) The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis passing through its midpoint perpendicular to its length is I0. Its moment of inertia about an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is-
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I0 + ML2
-
-
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I0 + 2ML2
-
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29) A boy standing at the top of tower of 20 m height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10ms-2, the velocity with which it hits the ground is-
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5.0 m/s
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10.0 m/s
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20.0 m/s
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40.0 m/s
-
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30) A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button one control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1. 0 m/s2. If g = 10 m/s2, the tension in the supporting cable is-
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1200 N
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8600 N
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9680 N
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11000 N
-
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31) A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth’s radius before returning to the earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest
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At the instant just after the body is projected
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At the highest position of the body
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At the instant just before the body hits the earth
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It remains constant all through
-
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32) The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation θ (t) = 2t3 – 6t2. The torque on the wheel becomes zero at
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t = 2 s
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t = 1 s
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t = 0.2 s
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t = 0.25 s
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33) A particle moves in a circle of radius 5cm with constant speed and period 0.2πs. The acceleration of the particle is
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5 m/s2
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15 m/s2
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25 m/s2
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36 m/s2
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34) A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is-
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Zero
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MV
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1.5 MV
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2 MV
-
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35) A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at a distance of r2. If V1 and V2 are the linear velocities at these point respectively. Then the ration v1/v2 is-
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r1/r1
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(r1/r1)2
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r2/r1
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(r2/r1)2
-
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36) A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency ѵ and the nucleus recoils. The recoil energy will be
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Hѵ
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Mc2 - hѵ
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h2ѵ 2/2Mc2
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Zero
-
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37) A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at VC = 2 V such that a change in the base current from 100µA to 300 µA produces a change in the collector current from 10 mA to 20 mA. The current gain is-
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25
-
50
-
75
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100
-
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38) If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal-
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Its resistance is increased
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It becomes a p-type semiconductor
-
The antimony becomes an acceptor atom
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There will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
-
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39) In forward biasing of the p-n junction
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The positive terminal of the battery in connected to p-side and the depletion region becomes thin
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The positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the depletion region becomes thick
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The positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region becomes thin
-
The positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region becomes thick
-
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40) Symbolic representation of four logic gates are shown
Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively:
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(ii), (iv) and (iii)
-
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
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(iii), (ii) and (i)
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(iii), (ii) and (iv)
-
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41) The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is
-
-
42) Spring of force constant k is cut into length of ratio 1: 2: 3. They are connected in series and the new force constant is K’. Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k”. then k’: k” is:
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1: 9
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1: 11
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1: 14
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1: 6
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43) A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person has to use, will be
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convex, + 0.15 diopter
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convex, + 2.25 diopter
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convex, - 0.25 diopter
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convex, -0.2 diopter
-
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44) From a disc of a radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
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15 MR2/32
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13 MR2/32
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11 MR2/32
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9 MR2/32
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45) The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is-
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1) Which one of the following is not a common component of Photochemical Smog?
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Ozone
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Acrolein
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Peroxyacetyl nitrate
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Chlorofluorocarbons
-
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2) In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 gm of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4, The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is;
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37.33
-
45.33
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35.33
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43.33
-
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3) What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br2 in the presence of FeBr3?
-
-
4) Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?
-
-
CH3CH2CH2Cl
-
-
-
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5) Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?
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CH3CHO; RMgX
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C6H5OH; NaOH; CH3l
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C6H5OH; neutral FeCl3
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C6H5 – CH3; CH3COCl; AlCl3
-
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6) Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate?
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2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol
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Benzoic acid
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o-Nitrophenol
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Benzenesulphonic acid
-
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7) Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction?
-
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8) Identify Z in the sequence of reactions:
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CH3 – (CH2)3 – O - CH2CH3
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(CH3)2CH2 – O – CH2CH3
-
CH3(CH2)4 – O – CH3
-
CH3CH2 – CH(CH3) - O – CH2CH3
-
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9) Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product CO2?
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Ethane
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Ethyne
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Ethene
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Ethanol
-
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10) Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base?
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PF3
-
CO
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F-
-
BF3
-
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11) Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft’s reaction easily:-
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Toluene
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Cumene
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Xylene
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Nitrobenzene
-
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12) Which is the monomer of Neoprene in the following:-
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CH2≡CH-C≡CH
-
CH2=CH-CH=CH2
-
-
-
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13) 6.02 × 1020 molecule of urea are present in 100mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is:-
-
0.1 M
-
0.02 M
-
0.01 M
-
0.001 M
-
-
14) Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from:
-
NH3(g)
-
H2(g)
-
N2(g)
-
CH4(g)
-
-
15) Which of the following is paramagnetic?
-
NO+
-
CO
-
O2⎺
-
CN⎺
-
-
16) Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium:
-
Na2 S > ZnS > CuS
-
CuS > ZnS > Na2S
-
ZnS > Na2 S > CuS
-
Na2S < CuS > ZnS
-
-
17) What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20°C to 35°C? (R = 8.314 J mol-1K-1)
-
15.1 k J mol-1
-
342 k J mol-1
-
269 k J mol-1
-
34.7 k J mol-1
-
-
18) Which is the strongest acid in the following?
-
H2SO3
-
H2SO4
-
HClO3
-
HClO4
-
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19) The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B), Acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is:
-
A > B > C > D
-
A > C > B > D
-
B > A > D > C
-
B > D > C > A
-
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20) In the following reactions:
The major products is :-
-
-
21) Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system?
-
-
-
Br – CH2 – CH = CH2
1-Bromo-prop-2-ene
-
-
-
22) Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is:
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Toluene
-
Benzene
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Benzoic Acid
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Nitrobenzene
-
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23) Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease
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Cheiosis
-
Sterility
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Convulsion
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Beri-Beri
-
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24) Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose?
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β- D- Glucopyranose and α- D- Fructofuranose
-
α- D- Glucopyranose and β - D- Fructofuranose
-
α- D- Galactopyranose and α- D- glucopyranose
-
α- D- fructofuranose
-
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25) Which one of the following statements regarding photochemical smog is not correct?
-
Photochemical smog is formed through photochemical reaction involving solar energy
-
Photochemical smog does not cause irritation in eyes and throat.
-
Carbon monoxide does not play any role on photochemical smog formation
-
Photochemical smog is an oxidising agent in character
-
-
26) In the following sequence of reactions
the end product (C) is:
-
Acetaldehyde
-
Ethyl alcohol
-
Acetone
-
Methane
-
-
27) Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?
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Dacron
-
Neoprene
-
Melamine
-
Glyptal
-
-
28) The electrode potentials for Cu2+ (aq) + e- → Cu+ (aq) and Cu+ (aq) + e- → Cu (s) are +0.15 V and +0.50 V respectively. They value of
will be
-
0.150 V
-
0.500 V
-
0.325 V
-
0.650 V
-
-
29) Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is
-
1.7700
-
0.1777
-
0.0177
-
0.0344
-
-
30) By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled?
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1.4
-
2.0
-
2.8
-
4.0
-
-
31) A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the concentration of NH4+ is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 × 10-5, what is the pH of this solution?
-
8.73
-
9.08
-
9.43
-
11.72
-
-
32) Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be
-
25.00 u
-
50.00 u
-
12.25 u
-
6.50 u
-
-
33) Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition?
-
q = 0, ∆T < 0, w ≠ 0
-
q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, w = 0
-
q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
-
q = 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
-
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34) For the reaction N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g), the equilibrium constant is K1.
The equilibrium constant is K2 for the reaction 2NO (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g).
What is K for the reaction NO2 (g) ⇌
N2 (g) + O2 (g).
-
-
35) If x is amount of adsorbent and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following relation is not related to adsorption process?
-
-
36) If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol-1 at 27°C, the entropy change for the process would be-
-
100 J mol-1 K-1
-
10 J mol-1 K-1
-
1.0 J mol-1 K-1
-
0.1 J mol-1 K-1
-
-
37) Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?
-
H2 and Pt as catalyst
-
Glycol with KOH
-
Zn-Hg with HCl
-
LiAlH4
-
-
38) Which one of the following is employed as Anthithstamine?
-
Omeprazole
-
Chloramphenicol
-
Diphenyl hydramine
-
Norothindrne
-
-
39) Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) Lactose?
-
(+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH groups
-
On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of D (+) galactose
-
(+) Lactose is a β-glycoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a molecule of D(+) galactose
-
(+) Lactose is reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation
-
-
40) Which one of the following statement is not true?
-
Oxides of Sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant
-
pH of drinking water should be between 5.5-9.5
-
Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish
-
Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm
-
-
41) Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCI of different concentration:
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
-
D
-
A
-
B
-
C
-
-
42) Which one is a wrong statement?
-
The electronic configuration of N atom is
-
An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated by four quantum numbers.
-
Total orbital angular momentum of electron in‘s’ orbital is equal to zero
-
The value of m for dZ2 is zero
-
-
43) Which is the incorrect statement?
-
Density decrease in case of crystal with Schottky’s defect.
-
NaCl(s) insulator, silicon is semiconductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric crystal.
-
Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic copounds in which sizes of cation and anions are almost equal.
-
FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal
-
-
44) Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II and mark the correct option.
-
-
45) Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductor of electric current?
-
Fructose, C6H12O6
-
Acetic acid, C2H4O2
-
hydrochloric acid, HCl
-
Ammonia, NH3
-
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1) Non-albuminous seed is produced in:
-
Castor
-
Wheat
-
Pea
-
Maize
-
-
2) During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C?
-
G1 and S
-
Only G2
-
G2 and M
-
G0 and G1
-
-
3) Transformation was discovered by:
-
Hershey and Chase
-
Griffith
-
Watson and Crick
-
Meselson and Stahl
-
-
4) Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-D). Identify the blanks.
-
-
5) In a population of 1000 individuals, 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is:
-
0.5
-
0.6
-
0.7
-
0.4
-
-
6) Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which:
-
Ovaries are removed surgically.
-
Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up.
-
Uterus is removed surgically.
-
Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up.
-
-
7) Which of the following is responsible for peat formation?
-
Riccia
-
Funaria
-
Sphagnum
-
Marchantia
-
-
8) Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes?
-
Ectocarpus
-
Ulothrix
-
Spirogyra
-
Sargassum
-
-
9) Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
-
Translation – Using information in m-RNA to make protein.
-
Repressor protein – Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis.
-
Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter.
-
Transcription – Writing information from DNA to t-RNA
-
-
10) Which of the following is a hormone releasing intra uterine device (IUD)?
-
LNG – 20
-
Cervical cap
-
Vault
-
Multiload 375
-
-
11) Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups do the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?
-
-
12) Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in:
-
Funaria
-
Lilium
-
Pinus
-
Pteris
-
-
13) The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is:
-
Ureter
-
Vas deferens
-
Vasa efferentia
-
Urethra
-
-
14) Injury localised to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt:
-
Co-ordination during locomotion
-
Executive functions such as decision making
-
Regulation of body temperature
-
Short term memory
-
-
15) Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female:
-
High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo.
-
High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.
-
High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.
-
High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium.
-
-
16) The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by?
-
Trypsin
-
Rennin
-
Pepsin
-
Lipase
-
-
17) The motile bacteria are able to move by:
-
Flagella
-
Cilia
-
Pili
-
Fimbriae
-
-
18) One of the legal methods of birth control is
-
Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
-
By abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
-
By having coitus at the of day break
-
By a premature ejaculation during coitus
-
-
19) Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
-
Klinefelter’s syndrome
-
Sex of the foetus
-
Down’s syndrome
-
Jaundice
-
-
20) Artificial insemination means
-
Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
-
Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
-
Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
-
Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
-
-
21) Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?
-
Incomplete dominance
-
Law of dominance
-
Inheritance of one gene
-
Co-dominance
-
-
22) The incorrect statement with regards to haemophilia is
-
It is a sex-linked disease.
-
It is a recessive disease.
-
It is a dominant disease.
-
A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected.
-
-
23) If both parents are carriers for thalassemia which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
-
No chance
-
50 %
-
25 %
-
100 %
-
-
24) The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.
-
A - Transcription, B - Transcription, C - James Watson
-
A - Translation, B - Transcription, C - Erwin Chargaff
-
A – Transcription, B - Translation, C - Francis Crick
-
A - Translation, B - Extension, C - Rosalind Franklin
-
-
25) Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a non-sense mutation in the lac Y gene?
-
β- galactosidase
-
Lactose permease
-
Transacetylase
-
Lactose permease and transacetylase
-
-
26) According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to
-
Intraspecific competition
-
Intraspecific competition
-
Competition within closely related species.
-
Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species.
-
-
27) The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of
-
Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
-
Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
-
Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
-
Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
-
-
28) Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by
-
Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
-
Eating imperfectly cooked pork
-
Tse-tse fly
-
Mosquito bite
-
-
29) The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by
-
T- lymphocytes
-
B-lymphocytes
-
Thrombocytes
-
Erythrocytes
-
-
30) In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called
-
Selection of superior recombinants
-
Cross-hybridisation among the selected parents
-
Evaluation and selection of parents.
-
Germplasm collection
-
-
31) During sewage treatment, biogas is produced which includes
-
Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide
-
Methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
-
Hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide
-
Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane
-
-
32) A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is
-
10
-
15
-
05
-
Zero
-
-
33) Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?
-
Fragmentation – carried out by organisms such as earthworms.
-
Humification - leads to an accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate.
-
Catabolism - last step in the decomposition under fully anaerobic condition.
-
Leaching - water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil.
-
-
34) A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is
-
Ecto-parasitism
-
Symbiosis
-
Commensalism
-
Amensalism
-
-
35) Selected the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana:
-
There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut.
-
Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts.
-
Nervous system located dorsally, consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal connectives.
-
Males bear a pair of short thread-like anal styles.
-
-
36) Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to:
-
Diarrhoea
-
Vomiting
-
Indigestion
-
Jaundice
-
-
37) Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans?
-
Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis.
-
About 90% of carbon dioxide (C02) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino hemoglobin.
-
Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi.
-
Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration.
-
-
38) What is correct to say about the hormone action in human?
-
In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on the ovarian cell membrane.
-
FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone.
-
Glucagon is secreted by the cells of Islets of Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis.
-
Secretion of thymosin is stimulated with ageing.
-
-
39) Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from:
-
Soli insects
-
Small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize, etc.
-
Sugarcane rots
-
Decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter
-
-
40) Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are:
-
Very much smaller and fewer
-
Nucleated and without haemoglobin
-
Without nucleus but with haemoglobin
-
Nucleated and with haemoglobin
-
-
41) Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?
-
Collagen
-
Insulin
-
Trypsin
-
Haemoglobin
-
-
42) Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much required?
-
Vestibular apparatus
-
Ear ossicles
-
Eustachian tube
-
Organ of Corti
-
-
43) A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the following is likely to happen in his neurohormonal control system?
-
Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of brain.
-
Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from adrenal cortex.
-
Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from adrenal medulla.
-
Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse.
-
-
44) In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was:
-
High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening.
-
High levels of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis.
-
High levels of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo.
-
High levels of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening.
-
-
45) The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques?
-
Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
-
Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)
-
Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
-
Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)
-
-
46) Signals for parturition originate from:
-
Placenta only
-
Fully developed foetus only
-
Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
-
Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
-
-
47) Which one of the following statements is false with respect to viability of mammalian sperm?
-
Viability of sperm is determine by its motility.
-
Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension.
-
Sperm is viable for only upto 24 hours.
-
Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium.
-
-
48) The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eye brows, retreating foreheads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gilt and stooped posture was:
-
Cro-magnon humans
-
Ramapithecus
-
Homo habils
-
Neanderthal human
-
-
49) What is the figure given below showing in particular?
-
Tubectomy
-
Vasectomy
-
Ovarian cancer
-
Uterine cancer
-
-
50) In an area where DDT had been used extensively the population of birds declined significantly because
-
Cobras were feeding exclusively on birds.
-
Many of the eggs laid by birds did not hatch.
-
Birds stopped laying eggs.
-
Earthworms in the area got eradicated.
-
-
51) Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain organisms at some of the different levels?
-
Level one PP is “peepal trees” and the level SC “sheep”.
-
Level PC is “rats” and level SC is “cats”.
-
Level PC is ‘insects” and level SC is “small insectivorous birds”.
-
Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and “whale” on top level TC.
-
-
52) Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them?
-
Sea horse and Flying fish – Cold blooded (Poikilothermal)
-
Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus – Viviparity
-
Garden lizard and Crocodile – Three chambered heart
-
Ascaris and Ancylostoma – Metameric segmentation
-
-
53) The "eyes" of the potato tuber are
-
Axillary buds
-
Root buds
-
Flower buds
-
Shoot buds
-
-
54) Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in a
-
Hot spring
-
Sulphur rock
-
Cattle yard
-
Polluted stream
-
-
55) Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature?
-
Angiosperms
-
Fungi
-
Insects
-
Birds
-
-
56) Archegoniophore is present in
-
Funaria
-
Marchantia
-
Chara
-
Adiantum
-
-
57) Compared to the gametophytes of bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be
-
Smaller and have smaller sex organs
-
Smaller but have larger sex organs
-
Larger but have smaller sex organs
-
Larger and have larger sex organs
-
-
58) The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in
-
Pinus
-
Polytrichum
-
Adiantum
-
Marchantia
-
-
59) Important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is
-
Lysosome
-
Vacuole
-
Golgi apparatus
-
Plastid
-
-
60) Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in
-
Ribosomes
-
Chloroplast
-
Mitochondria
-
Chromoplast
-
-
61) In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is
-
Cell wall
-
Plasma membrane
-
Nucleus
-
Ribosomes
-
-
62) Mutations can be induced with
-
Gamma radiations
-
Infra-red radiations
-
IAA
-
Ethylene
-
-
63) A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is called a
-
Genome
-
Herbarium
-
Germplasm
-
Gene library
-
-
64) Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
-
23S rRNA
-
5S rRNA
-
sn RNA
-
hn RNA
-
-
65) Which one of the following statements is correct?
-
Flower of tulip is a modified shoot.
-
In tomato, fruit is a capsule.
-
Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperms.
-
Placentation in primrose is basal.
-
-
66) The correct floral formula of chilli is
-
-
67) Nitrifying bacteria
-
Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
-
Oxidise ammonia to nitrates
-
Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
-
Convert proteins into ammonia
-
-
68) The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is
-
Expression of nif gene
-
Inhibition of nitrogenase activity
-
Oxygen removal
-
Nodule differentiation
-
-
69) Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct?
-
It is upright in shape.
-
Its base is broad.
-
It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms.
-
It is inverted in shape.
-
-
70) Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of
-
Aspergillus
-
Saccharomyces
-
Clostridium
-
Trichoderma
-
-
71) Consider the following four conditions (a - d) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in desert lizards.
The conditions
a. Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature.
b. Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature.
c. Bask in sun when the temperature is low.
d. Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis.
-
(a), (b)
-
(c), (d)
-
(a), (c)
-
(b), (d)
-
-
72) Which one of the following pairs of gases are the major cause of "Greenhouse Effect"?
-
CO2 and N2O
-
CO2 and O3
-
CO2 and CO
-
CFCs and SO2
-
-
73) Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
-
Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
-
Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
-
Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
-
Spleen of infected humans
-
-
74) When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both of its parents. This phenomenon is called
-
Metamorphosis
-
Heterosis
-
Transformation
-
Spheing
-
-
75) A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
-
WIDAL
-
ELISA
-
MRI
-
Ultrasound
-
-
76) At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
-
Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
-
When the infecting retrovirus enters the host cells
-
When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
-
When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T lymphocytes and damages large number of these cells
-
-
77) Given below is a sample of portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it?
5' ______ GAATTC ________ 3'
3' _______CTTAAG________ 5'
-
Palindromic sequence of base pairs
-
Replication completed
-
Deletion mutation
-
Start codon at the 5' end
-
-
78) The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is
-
Molasses
-
Corn meal
-
Soya meal
-
Ground gram
-
-
79) An organism used as biofertiliser for raising soyabean crop is
-
Nostoc
-
Azotobacter
-
Azospirillum
-
Rhizobium
-
-
80) There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand for?
-
Coli
-
Colon
-
coelom
-
coenzyme
-
-
81) Niche is
-
The range of temperature that the organism needs to live.
-
The physical space where an organism live.
-
All the biological factors in the organism’s environment.
-
The functional role played by the organism where it lives.
-
-
82) Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisation without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
-
Bio-degradation
-
Bio-piracy
-
Bio-infringement
-
Bio-exploitation
-
-
83) Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird?
-
Dorsal fin of shark
-
Wing of moth
-
Hindlimb of rabbit
-
Flipper of whale
-
-