NEET Online Coaching: Prepare for NEET Examination at Topperlearning

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Question 1

Positive Marks: 4 / Negative Marks: 1

1)	The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is.

2)	The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe if the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

12.5 cm
8 cm

13.2 cm
16 cm

3)	The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

6.25%
20%

26.8%
12.5%

4)	At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escape from the Earth's atmosphere? (Given: Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10^-26kg

5.016 × 10⁴ K

8.360 × 10⁴ K
2.508 × 10⁴ K
1.254 × 10⁴ K

5)	Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index 'μ'. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other, which of the following options is correct for this situation?

Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence
Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence

In Young's double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2mm, the wavelength λ of the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same λ and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

2.1 mm

1.9 mm
1.8 mm
1.7 mm

7)	An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

large focal length and large diameter
large focal length and small diameter
small focal length and large diameter
small focal length and small diameter

The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are K_A, K_B and K_C, respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then

$Description: D:\Profile Backup\Download\Neet-2016-Figure_05 (1).png$

K_B < K_A < K_C

K_A > K_B > K_C
K_A < K_B < K_C
K_B> K_A> K_C

9)	A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (K_t) as well as rotational kinetic energy (K_r) simultaneously. The ratio K_t: (K_t+ K_r) for the sphere is

10:7

5:7
7:10
2:5

10)	Spring of force constant k is cut into length of ratio 1:2:3. They are connected in series and the new force constant is K’. Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k”. then k’: k” is:

1 : 9

1 : 11
1 : 14
1 : 6

11)	The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelenght λ₁ =4000 Å and λ₂ =6000 Å is:

9: 4

3 : 2
16 : 81
8 : 27

12)	The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?

20 Hz
30 Hz
40 Hz
10 Hz

13)	Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1g falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m/s. Take ‘g’ constant with a value 10 m/s². The work done by the gravitational force and the resistive force of air is:

(i) 1.25 J (ii)-8.25 J
(i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J

(i) 10 J (ii)-8.75 J
(i) -10 J (ii) -8.25 J

14)	A physical quantity of the dimension of length that can be formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge]:

15)	Two rods A and B of different materials are welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal conductivities are K₁ and K₂. The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be:

K₁ + K₂
2(K₁ + K₂)

16)	A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system:

decreases by a factor of 2
remains the same
increases by a factor of 2
increases by a factor of 4

17)	In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The resistance of collector is 3 KΩ If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 KΩ, the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is:

15 and 200

150 and 15000
20 and 2000
200 and 1000

18)	Thermodynamic process are indicated in the following diagram.

P→c, Q→a, R→d, S→b
P→c, Q→d , R→b, S→a
P→d, Q→b, R→a, S→c
P→a, Q→c, R→d, S→b

19)	A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person has to use, will be

convex, + 0.15 diopter
convex, + 2.25 diopter

convex, - 0.25 diopter
convex, -0.2 diopter

20)	A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 × 10^-5 cm. The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the center of the screen is

0.15
0.10
0.25
0.20

21)	Electron of mass m with de – Broglie wavelength λ fall on the target in an X – ray tube. The cutoff wavelength (λ₀) of the emitted X – ray is

22)	Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is

-3 V
+3 V
+4 V
-1 V

23)	If an electron in a hydrogen atoms jumps from the 3 rd orbit to the 2 nd orbit, it emits a photo of wavelength λ. When it jumps from he 4^th orbit to the 3^rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be

24)	The half – life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85 % decay of the same radioactive substance is

25)	For CE transistor amplifier. The audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2kΩ is 4 v. if the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is 1 kΩ, then the input signal voltage is

15 mV
10 mV

20 mV
30 mV

26)	The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing through the resistance R₁ will be

3.13 A

2.5 A
10.0 A
1.43 A

27)	What is the output Y in the following circuit when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1?

1, 1
0, 1
0, 0

1, 0

28)	From a disc of a radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?

15 MR²/32

13 MR²/32
11 MR²/32
9 MR²/32

29)	A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY, carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be:

30)	The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:

diamagnetic material only
paramagnetic material only
ferromagnetic material only
paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials

31)	A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15 ms^-1. Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is: (Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms^-1)

765 Hz
800 Hz

838 Hz
885 Hz

32)	A capacitor of 2 μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is:

33)	In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width ‘a’, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of:

34)	At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are –5.4 × 10⁷J kg^-2 and 6.0 ms^-2 respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km.

2600 km
1600 km
1400 km
2000 km

35)	Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?

A charge moving at constant velocity.
A stationary charge
A chargeless particle

An accelerating charge

36)

Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d << l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity ν. Then ν varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as:

37)	The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is-

38)

Point masses m₁ and m₂ are placed at the opposite ends of a rigid rod of length L, and negligible mass. The rod is to be set rotating about an axis perpendicular to it. The position of point P on this rod through which the axis should pass so that the work required to set the rod rotating with angular velocity ɷ₀ is minimum, is given by:

39)	A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region of uniform magnetic field B, if the radius of circular orbits for both the particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV, the energy acquired by the alpha particle will be-

4 MeV
0.5 MeV
1.5 MeV

1 MeV

40)

A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of inclination with the horizontal reaches 30°, the box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank in 4.0 s. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the box and the plank will be, respectively-

0.6 and 0.6

0.6 and 0.5
0.5 and 0.6
0.4 and 0.3

41)	An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by means of several processes. Which of the process results in the maximum work done on the gas?

Adiabatic
Isobaric
Isochoric
Isothermal

42)	A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity υ0. It collides with the ground, losses 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity υ0 is (take g = 10 ms^-2)

14 ms^-1

20 ms^-1
28 ms^-1
10 ms^-1

43)	In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest wavelength in the Lyman series to the longest wavelength in the blamer series is-

44)

A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observer O are located at some distance from each other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms^-1 at an angle of 60° with the source observer line as shown in the figure. The observer is at rest. The apparent frequency observer by the observer (velocity of sound in air 330 ms^-1) is-

100 Hz

103 Hz
106 Hz
97 Hz

45)	If dimensions of critical velocity v_c od a liquid flowing through a tube are expressed as , where η , ρ and r are the coefficient of viscosity of liquid, density of liquid and radius of the tube respectively, then the values of x, y and z are given by-

1, -1, -1
-1, -1, 1
-1, -1, -1
1,1,1

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Question 1

Positive Marks: 4 / Negative Marks: 1

1)	Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCI of different concentration: a. b. c. d. pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

2)	On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?

Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion
Size of the ion alone
The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone
The sign of charge on the ion alone

3)	The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is 2.42 × 10^-3 gL^-1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be (Given molar mass of BaSO₄ = 233 g mol^-1)

1.08 × 10^-14 mol²L^-2
1.08 × 10^-12 mol²L^-2

1.08 × 10^-10 mol²L^-2
1.08 × 10^-8 mol²L^-2

4)	Given van der Waals constant for NH₃, H₂, O₂ and CO₂ are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases in most easily liquefied?

O₂
H₂

NH₃
CO₂

5)	In the reaction $Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\NEET PYP 2018_Que 5.png$ The electrophile involved is

dichloromethyl anion
formyl cation (CHO)
dichloromethyl cation

dichlorocarbene (:CCl₂)

6)	Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alchohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction
formation of carboxylate ion
formation of intramolecular H-bonding

formation of intermolecular H- bonding

7)	Compound A, C₈ H₁₀ O, is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell. A and Y are respectively

$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\NEET PYP 2018_Que 7.png$
$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\NEET PYP 2018_Que 7 optn B.png$
$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\NEET PYP 2018_Que 7 optn C.png$
$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\NEET PYP 2018_Que 7 optn D.png$

8)	Magnesium react with an element (X) to from an ionic compound. If the ground sate electronic configuration of (X) is 1s² 2s²2p³, the simplest formula for this compound is

Mg₂X
MgX₂
Mg₂ X₃

Mg₃ X₂

9)	Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900° C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio for density of iron at room temperature to that at 900° C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is

10)	Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO₄ solution:

SO₂
NO₂
P₂O₅
CO₂

11)	Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X₂ + Y₂→ 2 XY is given below: X₂→ X + X (fast) X + Y₂⇌ XY + Y (slow) X₂ + Y₂→ XY (fast) The overall order of the reaction will be:

12)	The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group and electronic configuration?

Carbon family, [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p²
Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p⁴
Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p⁶
Halogen family, [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p⁵

13)	The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces-

Iodobenzene

Phenol
Benezene
Ethyl Chlorides

14)	Which one is the correct order of acidity?

CH≡CH > CH₃–C≡CH > CH₂ = CH₂ > CH₃ – CH₃
CH ≡CH>CH₂=CH₂ > CH₃–C ≡ CH > CH₃–CH₃
CH₃–CH₃ > CH₂=CH₂ > CH₃–C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH
CH₂=CH₂ > CH₃–CH=CH₂ > CH₃–C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH

15)	Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction:

16)	The equilibrium constant of the following are: N₂ + 3 H₂⇌ 2 NH₃ K₁ N₂ + O₂⇌ 2 NO K₂ The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction: , will be:

17)	Which one is the most acidic compound?

18)	The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compound is:

III < I < II
III < II < I

II < I <III
II < III < I

19)	A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO₂ to give an unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the molecular formula C₁₂H₁₀N₂O. The structure of compound A is

$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\2016\NEET PYP 2016_Que 1_Optn A.png$
$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\2016\NEET PYP 2016_Que 1_Optn B.png$

$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\2016\NEET PYP 2016_Que 1_Optn C.png$
$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\2016\NEET PYP 2016_Que 1_Optn D.png$

20)	Consider the reaction This reaction will be the fastest in

Water
ethanol
methanol

N, N’-dimethylformamide(DMF)

21)	The correct structure of the product A formed in the reaction $Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\2016\NEET PYP 2016_Que 3.png$

$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\2016\NEET PYP 2016_Que 3 optn A.png$
$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\2016\NEET PYP 2016_Que 3 optn B.png$

$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\2016\NEET PYP 2016_Que 3 optn C.png$
$Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\2016\NEET PYP 2016_Que 3 optn D.png$

22)	Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism? $Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\2016\NEET PYP 2016_Que 4.png$

Both II and III

III only
Both I and III
Both I and II

23)	The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic acids $Description: D:\Varsha\2019\NEET-PYP\Chemdraw\2016\NEET PYP 2016_Que 5.png$

II > I > III
I > II > III

II > III > I
III > II > I

24)	The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula

C₂H₄

C₃H₆
C₂H₂
C₄H₁₀

25)	Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond?

Concentrated acetic acid
H₂O₂
HCN

Cellulose

26)	The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm³ solution of AgNO₃ with electrolytic conductivity of 5.76 × 10^–3 S cm^–1 at 298 K is

28.8 S cm²/mol
2.88 S cm²/mol

11.52 S cm²/mol
0.086 S cm²/mol

27)	The decomposition of phosphine (PH₃) on tungsten at low pressure is a first order reaction. It is because the

rate of decomposition is very slow

rate is proportional to the surface coverage
rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
rate is independent of the surface coverage

28)	Consider the molecules CH₄ NH₃ and H₂O. Which of the given statements is false?

The H – C – H bond angle in CH₄, the H –N – H bond angle in NH₃, and the H– O – H bond angle in H₂O are all greater than 90°.

The H – O – H bond angle in H₂O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH₄
The H – O – H bond angle in H₂ O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH₃
The H – C – H bond angle in CH₄ is larger than the H – N – H bond angle in NH₃

29)	In the reaction

X = 1- Butyne ; Y = 3- Hexyne
X = 2- Butyne ; Y = 3- Hexyne
X = 2- Butyne ; Y = 2- Hexyne
X = 1- Butyne ; Y = 2- Hexyne

30)	Among the following the correct order of acidity is:

HCIO₃ <HCIO₄ < HCIO₂ < HCIO

HCIO < HCIO₂ < HCIO₃ < HCIO₄
HCIO₂ < HCIO < HCIO₃ < HCIO₄
HCIO₄ < HCIO₂ < HCIO < HCIO₃

31)	The rate of first-order reaction is 0.04 mol l⁻¹ S⁻¹ at 10 second and 0.03 mol l^-1 S^-1 at 20 second after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:

24.1 s
34.1 s
44.1 s
54.1 s

32)	Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption?

∆G is negative but ∆H and ∆S are positive

ΔG, ΔH and ΔS all the negative
∆G and ∆H are negative but ∆S is positive
∆G and ∆S are negative but ∆H is positive

33)	In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

Al³⁺ < Mg² < Na+ < F− (Increasing ionic size)
B < C < O < N (Increasing first ionization enthalpy)

I < Br < Cl < F (Increasing electron gain enthalpy)
Li < Na < k < Rb (Increasing metallic radius)

34)	Which of the following statements is false?

Mg²⁺ ions from a complex with ATP
Ca²⁺ ions are important in blood clotting

Ca²⁺ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart
Mg²⁺ ions are important in the green parts of plants

35)	Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect?

Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common

Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
Hydronium ion, H₃O⁺ exists freely in solution
Dihydrogen acts as a reducing agent

36)	The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alphacarbon is:

a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol.
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation.

a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism.

37)	In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural

XeF₄, XeO₄
SiCl₄, PCl₄⁺
diamond, silicon carbide
NH₃, PH₃

38)	Which one of the following esters gets hydrolysed most easily under alkaline conditions?

39)	Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces which one of the following functional group?

-CHO
-CH₂Cl
-COOH
-CHCl₂

40)	Which of the following reactions can be used for the preparation of alkyl haldies?

III and IV only

I, III and IV only
I and II only
IV only

41)	In an S_N1 reaction on chiral centres, there is:

100 % inversion
100 % racemization

inversion more than retention leading to partial racemization
100 % retention

42)	Which of the following is not product of dehydration of

43)	On heating which of the following release CO₂ most easily?

CaCO₃
K₂CO₃
Na₂CO₃

MgCO₃

44)	In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule, to give a product 1 – chloro – 1 – methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is:

I and II

45)	Number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)₂Cl₂]Cl will be : en = ethylenediamine

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Question 1

Positive Marks: 4 / Negative Marks: 1

1)	What is the role of NAD⁺ in cellular respiration?

It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

It functions as an electron carrier.
It functions as an enzyme.
It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

2)	Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

Cycas
Nostoc

Green sulphur bacteria
Chara

3)	Double fertilisation is

Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

Syngamy and triple fusion

4)	In which of the following forms is iron adsorbed by plants?

Free element
Ferrous

Ferric
Both ferric and ferrous

5)	Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?

Potassium
Sodium
Magnesium
Calcium

6)	Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete, its life cycle without the other?

Banana

Yucca
Hydrilla
Viola

7)	Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having temperature of

-196°C
-80°C
-120°C
-160°C

8)	What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data? Secondary consumer: 120 g Primary consumer: 60 g Primary producer: 10 g

Upright pyramid of numbers
Pyramid of energy

Inverted pyramid of biomass
Upright pyramid of biomass

9)	Natality refers to

Number of individuals leaving the habitat

Birth rate
Death rate
Number of individuals entering habitat

10)	World Ozone Day is celebrated on

16^th September
21^st April
5^th June
22^nd April

11)	In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?

Cl
Carbon
Oxygen

12)

Niche is

The range of temperature that the organism needs to live.
The physical space where an organism live.
All the biological factors in the organism’s environment.

The functional role played by the organism where it lives.

13)	Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

SO₂
CO₂
CO

O₃

14)	Which of the following statement is correct?

Horsetails are gymnosperms.
Selaginella is heterosporous while Salvinia is homosporous.

Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.
Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.

15)	Pneumatophores occurs in

Carnivorous plants
Free-floating hydrophytes

Halophytes
Submerged hydrophytes

16)	Sweet potato is a modified

Tap root

Adventitious root
Stem
Rhizome

17)	Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by:

Phellogen

Vascular cambium
Apical meristems
Axillary meristems

18)	Select the wrong statement.

Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in sporozoans.
Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.
Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.

19)	Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to enzymes?

Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

20)	A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of:

Atrial Natriuretic Factor
Aldosterone
ADH
Renin

21)	Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete antibacterial lysozyme?

Paneth cells
Zymogen cells
Kupffer cells
Argentaffin cells

22)	Which of the following are not polymeric?

Proteins
Polysaccharides

Lipids
Nucleic acids

23)	Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into:

Endosperm

Embryo sac
Embryo
Ovule

24)	Myelin sheath is produced by:

Astrocytes and Schwann cells
Oligodendrocytes and osteoclasts
Osteoclasts and astrocytes

Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes

25)	Attractants and rewards are required for:

Entomophily
Hydrophily
Cleistogamy
Anemophily

26)	Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on the

Pre-synaptic membrane
Tips of axons

Post-synaptic membrane
Membranes of synaptic vesicles

27)	Coconut fruit is a:

Berry
Nut
Capsule

Drupe

28)	Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of following statement(s) provide the most appropriate explanation for this feature? They do not need to reproduce. They are somatic cells. They do not metabolise. All their internal space is available for oxygen transport.

Only a
a, c, and d
b and c

only d

29)	Capacitation occurs in:

Epididymis
Vas deferens

Female reproductive tract
Rete testis

30)	Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?

Eubacteria
Cyanobacteria
Mycobacteria

Archaebacteria

31)	Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when:

k = N
k > N
k < N
The value of r approaches zero

32)	Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents:

Directional selection as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction.
Disruptive selection as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output.
Stabilising selection followed by disruptive selection as it stabilises the population to produce higher yielding cows.
Stabilising selection as it stabilises this character in the population.

33)	Select the mismatch:

Rhodospirillum- Mycorrhiza
Anabaena - Nitrogen fixer
Rhizobium - Alfalfa
Frankia - Alnus

34)

Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food.

Select the best option from the following statements.

Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene.
The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment.
Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A.
Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments.

a, c and d
a and c
b, c and d
a and b

35)	The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with:

Acetocarmine
Aniline blue

Ethidium bromide
Bromophenol blue

36)	The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from the:

Stomach
Kidneys

Intestine
Heart

37)	A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using

Ligase
EcoRI
Taq polymerase
Polymerase III

38)	Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

Expression
Separation
Purification
Preservation

39)	Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?

HindIII
SalI

EcoRV
XhoI

40)	Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?

Radiation therapy

Gene therapy
Chemotherapy
Immunotherapy

41)	How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers?

42)	The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are

Coral reefs
Green algae

Chemosynthetic bacteria
Blue-green algae

43)	Which of the following is correct for r-selected species?

Small number of progeny with large size

Large number of progeny with small size
Large number of progeny with large size
Small number of progeny with small size

44)	If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, ‘-’ sign to detrimental and ‘0 ‘ sign to neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by ‘ + ‘ ‘ -’ refers to

Parasitism
Mutualism
Amensalism
Commensalism

45)	Which of the following is correctly matched?

Stratification - Population
Aerenchyma - Opuntia
Age pyramid - Biome

Parthenium hysterophorus - Threat to biodiversity

46)	Red List contains data or information on

Marine vertebrates only
All economically important plants
Plants whose product are in international trade

Threatened species

47)	Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?

They are both unicellular and multicellular.
They are eukaryotic.

All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall.
They are heterotrophic.

48)	Methanogens belong to

Slime moulds
Eubacteria

Archaebacteria
Dinoflagellates

49)	Select the wrong statement.

Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water.

The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.
Diatomaceous earth is formed by the cell walls of diatoms.
Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.

50)	The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on

Height of the plant
Date of collection
Name of collector
Local names

51)	Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of presence of

Vessels
Broad hardy leaves
Superficial stomata

Thick cuticle

52)	Which one of following statements is wrong?

Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food
Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment.

Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae.
Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria.

53)	The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to

Calyx
Gynoecium

Androecium
Corolla

54)	How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?

Six
Three

Four
Five

55)	Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that:

More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.
Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preference.

No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
Larger organism exclude smaller ones through competition.

56)	The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:

Hydrogen bonds
Phosphodiester bond
Covalent bond

Disulphide bridges

57)	The coconut water from tender coconut represents:

Endocarp
Fleshy mesocarp
Free nuclear proembryo

Free nuclear endosperm

58)	Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?

They lack a protein coat.
They are smaller than viruses.
They cause infections.

Their RNA is of high molecular weight.

59)	Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum-Arthropoda?

Chitinous exoskeleton
Metameric segmentation

Parapodia
Jointed appendages

60)	Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

Recessive gene disorder

X-linked recessive gene disorder
Chromosomal disorder
Dominant gene disorder

61)	Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:

Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport

Two photosystems operating simultaneously
Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
Oxidative phosphorylation

62)	In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?

Boron, zinc, manganese

Iron, copper, molybdenum
Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus

63)	Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking.

Emphysema
Asthma
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis

64)	A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:

Ley farming
Contour farming
Strip farming
Shifting farming

65)	Mitochondria and chloroplast are: Semi-autonomous organelles Formed by the division of pre-existing organelle and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising machinery. Which one of the following options is correct?

Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(b) is true but (a) is false.

(a) is true but (b) is false.
Both (a) and (b) are false.

66)	In the context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?

It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant.
It is used for prenatal sex determination.
It can be used for detection of Down’s syndrome.

It can be used for detection of cleft palate.

67)	In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in:

Stroma

Lumen of thylakoids
Inter membrane space
Antennae complex

68)	Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:

Guanosine and retinol

Opsin and retinol
Opsin and retinol
Transducin and retinene

69)	Spindle fibres attach on to:

Telomere of the chromosome

Kinetochore of the chromosome
Centromere of the chromosome
Kinetosome of the chromosome

70)	Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?

Gangetic shark

River dolphin
Blue whale
Sea-horse

71)	Which of the following is required as inducer (s) for the expression of lac operon?

Glucose
Galactose

Lactose
Lactose and galactose

72)	Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?

Parathormone – Calcitonin
Insulin – Glucagon
Aldosterone – Atrial Natriuretic Factor

Relaxin - Inhibin

73)	Read the different components from (a) to (d) in the list given below and tell the correct order of the components with reference to their arrangement from outer side to inner side in a woody dicot stem: (1) Secondary cortex (2) Wood (3) Secondary phloem (4) Phellem

(3), (4), (2), (1)
(1), (2), (4), (3)

(4), (1), (3), (2)
(4), (3), (1), (2)

74)	Chromatophores take part in:

Photosynthesis
Growth
Movement
Respiration

75)	Which of the following joints would allow no movement?

Fibrous joint
Cartilaginous joint
Synovial Joint
Ball and socket joint

76)	The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield-shaped cotyledon known as:

Epiblast
Coleorhiza

Scutellum
Coleoptile

77)	A gene showing codominance has:

One allele dominant on the other
Alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome
Alleles that are recessive to each other

Both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote

78)	Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell?

Nuclear envelope
Ribosome
Mesosome
Plasma membrane

79)

Question Paper (Section wise)