Question Paper (Section wise)
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1) A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of a given cell. The main battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4m long, when the resistance R, connected across the given cell, has values of.
(i) Infinity (ii) 9.5 Ω
The balancing lengths’, on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3m and 2.85 m, respectively. The value of internal resistance of the cell is.
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0.25 Ω
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0.95 Ω
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0.5 Ω
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0.75 Ω
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2) Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnetism in different configurations. Each magnet has magnetic dipole moment
. Which configuration has highest net magnetic dipole moment?
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(a)
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(b)
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(c)
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(d)
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3) In an ammeter 0.2 % of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance ammeter will be-
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4) Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angle to each other, with one above other such that ‘O’ their common point for the two. The wires carry I1 and I2 currents respectively. Point ‘P’ is lying at distance ‘d’ from ‘O’ along a direction perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point ‘P’ will be-
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5) A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius ‘r’ is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B/ as shown in figure. The potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is-
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zero
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Bvπr2/2 and P is at higher potential
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πrBv and R is at higherpotential
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2rBv and R is at higher potential
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6) A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200V and 3kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are –
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300 V, 15 A
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450 V, 15 A
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450 V, 13.5 A
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600 V, 15 A
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7) Light with an energy flux of 25 × 104 Wm-2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm2, the average force exerted on the surface is –
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1.25 × 10-6 N
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2.50 × 10-6 N
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1.20 × 10-6 N
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3.0 × 10-6 N
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8) A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distance source falls on a single alit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is –
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1.2 cm
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1.2 mm
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2.4 cm
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2.4 mm
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9) In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is K, (λ being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point where the path difference is λ/4, will be –
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K
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K/4
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K/2
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Zero
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10) The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is-
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Infra-red waves produce heating in a microwave oven
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The frequency of the microwaves must match the resonant frequency of the water molecules
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The frequency of the microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of the water molecules
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Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating
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11) An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms-1 and the second part of mass 2Kg moves with 8 ms-1 speed. If the third part files off with 4 ms-1 speed, then its mass is-
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17 kg
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3 kg
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5 kg
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7 kg
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12) In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows
error in P is
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4 %
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14 %
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10 %
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7 %
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13) A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity ‘v’. It reaches up to a maximum heights of
with respect to the initial position. The object is
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Disc
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Ring
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Solid sphere
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hollow sphere
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14) A Plano convex lens fits exactly into a Plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices µ1 and µ2 and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of combination is –
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15) A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is correct?
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The angular width of central maximum will be unaffected
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Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons
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The angular width of the central maximum
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The angular width of the central maximum will decrease
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16) For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40 D and the least converging power of the eye lens behind the cornea is 20 D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the cornea-eye lens can be estimated to be –
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1.5 cm
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5 cm
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2.5 cm
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1.67 cm
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17) The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination θ is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the plane is given by –
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µ = tan θ
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-
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µ =2 tan θ
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18) A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement along y-direction as 1 m, wavelength 2πm and frequency of
Hz is represented by:
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y = sin (2πx + 2πt)
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y = sin (x - 2t)
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y = sin (2πx - 2πt)
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y = sin (10πx + 20πt)
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19) What is the flux through a cube of side ‘a’ if a point charge of q is at one of its corner?
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20) An electrical dipole of moment ‘p’ is placed in an electric field of intensity ‘E’. The dipole acquires a position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle Ѳ with the direction of the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole to be zero when Ѳ = 90°, the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will respectively be:-
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p E sin Ѳ, 2p E cos Ѳ
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p E sin Ѳ, -p E cos Ѳ
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p E sin Ѳ, -p E cos Ѳ
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p E sin Ѳ, -2p E cos Ѳ
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21) Four point charges -Q, -q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation between Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is:
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Q = q
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Q = -q
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22) A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It:
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will stay in north-south direction only
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will stay in east-west direction only
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will become rigid showing no movement
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will stay in any position
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23) A millivoltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere range. The value (in ohm) of necessary shunts will be:
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1 Ω
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0.05 Ω
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0.001 Ω
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0.01 Ω
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24) Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The currents flowing in them are I and 21 respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction at the centre will be:
-
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25) Alternating electric field of frequency v, is applied across the dees (radius = R) of a cyclotron that is being used to accelerate protons (mass = m). The operating magnetic field (B) used in the cyclotron and the kinetic energy (K) of the proton beam, produced by it, are given by:
-
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26) The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are:
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18 cm, 2 cm
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11 cm, 9 cm
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10 cm, 10 cm
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15 cm, 5 cm
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27) A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence, I, on one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to be small) and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the prism is μ, the angle of incident I, is nearly equal to:
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A/ μ
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A/2 μ
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μA
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28) The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2 when
of it has decayed and time t1 when t1 when
of it had decayed is -
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60 days
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15 days
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30 days
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50 days
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29) A rod length 10 cm lies along the principle axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is-
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2.5 cm
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5 cm
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10 cm
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15 cm
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30) Two radiation of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV, successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is-
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1 : 1
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1 : 5
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1 : 4
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1 : 2
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31) Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of -1 × 10-2 C and 5 × 10-2 C respectively. If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is-
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4 × 10-2 C
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1 × 10-2 C
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2 × 10-2 C
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3 × 10-2 C
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32) A cell having an emf ɛ and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given by-
-
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33) For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index-
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is less than 1
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is grater than 2
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lies between
and 1
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lies between 2 and
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34) A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle. Its radius R = 2m and its moment of inertia about the axle is 200 kg m2. It is initially at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the platform and begins to walk along the edge at the speed of 1 ms-1 relative to the ground. Time taken by the man to complete one revolution is-
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2π s
-
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π s
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35) A slab of stone of area 0.36 m2 and thickness 0.1 m is exposed on the lower surface to steam at 100°C. A block of ice at 0°C rests on the upper surface of the slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted. The thermal conductivity of slab is:
(Given latent heat of fusion of ice 3.36 × 105 J kg-1)
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2.05 J/m/s/°C
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1.02 J/m/s/°C
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1.24 J/m/s/°C
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1.29 J/m/s/°C
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36) The dimension of (μ0ε0)-1/2 are-
-
-
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[L-1T]
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[LT-1]
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37) A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20cm. Which one of the following options describe best the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens?
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Real, inverted, height = 1 cm
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Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm
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Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm
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Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
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38) In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is-
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2.3 V
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1.8 V
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1.3 V
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0.5 V
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39) Electrons used in an microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is increased to 100 km then the de- Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would-
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Increases by 4 times
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Increase by 2 times
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Decrease by 2 times
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Decrease by 4 times
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40) Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1eV and 2.5eV respectively illuminated metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ration of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be
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1 : 5
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1 : 4
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1 : 2
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1 : 1
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41) In the Davision and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron gun can be increases by-
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Decreasing the potential difference between the anode the filament
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Increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
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Increasing the filament current
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Decreasing the filaments current
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42) The half -life of a radioactive isotope X is 50 years. It decays to another element Y which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio of 1: 15 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to be-
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100 years
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150 years
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200 years
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250 years
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43) Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum-
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Frequency
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Power
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Wavelength
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Intensity
-
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44) Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
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Molecules break up at high temperature
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Nuclei break up at high temperature
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Atoms get ionized at high temperature
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Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
-
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45) A nucleus
emits one α particle and two β particles. The resulting nucleus is-
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- 2
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1) Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions?
(At. nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28):
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Ti3+
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Ni2+
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Cr3+
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Mn2+
-
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2) Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent?
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mer-[Co (NH3)3Cl3]
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cis-[PtCl2 (NH3)2]
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cis-K2 [PtCl2Br2]
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Na2CoCl4
-
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3) Reason of lanthanoid contraction is:–
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Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals
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Increasing nuclear charge
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Decreasing nuclear charge
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Decreasing screening effect
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4) In the following reaction, the product (A)
-
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5) Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt
?
-
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6) D (+) glucose reacts with hydroxylamine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be:
-
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7) Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?
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Thyroxin
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Insulin
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Adrenaline
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Estradiol
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8) Which one of the following is an example of a thermosetting polymer?
-
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9) Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?
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Propylene and para HO – (C6H4) – OH
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Benzoic acid and ethanol
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Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
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Benzoic acid and para HO – (C6H4) – OH
-
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10) Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?
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(NH4)2Cr2O7
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KCIO3
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Zn(CIO3)2
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K2Cr2O7
-
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11) A metal has a fcc lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72g cm-3. The molar mass of the metal is:-
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20g mol-1
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40g mol-1
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30g mol-1
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27 g mol-1
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12) Dipole induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs:-
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SiF4 and He atoms
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H2O and alcohol
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CI2 and CCI4
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HCI and He atoms
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13) Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a byproduct. This is colourless gas with choking smell of brunt Sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic, acts as reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The gas X is:-
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SO3
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H2S
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SO2
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CO2
-
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14) Some meta-directing substitutents in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating?
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-NO2
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-C≡N
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-SO3H
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-COOH
-
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15) Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100°C forms which one of the following products?
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1, 2, 4-Trinitrobenzene
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1, 2-Dinitrobenzene
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1, 3- Dinitrobenzene
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1, 4- Dinitrobenzene
-
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16) A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCI of pH = 10 and by passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be?
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1018 V
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0.059 V
-
0.59 V
-
0.118 V
-
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17) Which of the following is a polar molecule?
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XeF4
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BF3
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SF4
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SiF4
-
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18) A button cell used in watches function as following
Zn (s) + Ag2 O(s) + H2O(𝓁) ⇌ 2Ag(s) + Zn2+(aq) + 2OH⎺(aq)
If half-cell potentials are
E° = −0.76V
E° = 0.34 V. The cell potential will be:
-
1.34 V
-
1.10 V
-
0.42 V
-
0.84 V
-
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19) Sulphur trioxide can be obtained by which of the following reaction:
-
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20) In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide with:
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Iron sulphide (FeS)
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Carbon monoxide (CO)
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Copper (I) sulphide (Cu2S)
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Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
-
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21) Identify the wrong statement in the following:
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Atomic radius of the elements increase as one moves down the first group of the periodic table
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Atomic radius of the elements decrease as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of the periodic table
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Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius
-
Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius
-
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22) Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids phosphorus?
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All oxoacids contain tetrahedral four coordinated phosphorus
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All oxoacids contain atleast one P = O unit and one P – OH group
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Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate
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Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid
-
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23) Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it.
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Bell metal
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Bronze
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Inver
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Steel
-
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24) The pair of species with the same bond order is:
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NO, CO
-
N2, O2
-
O22-, B2
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O2+, NO+
-
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25) Bond order of 1.5 is shown by:
-
O22-
-
O2
-
O2+
-
O2–
-
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26) Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?
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Pyrolusite
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Magnetite
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malachite
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Cassiterite
-
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27) Which one of the alkali metals, forms only the normal oxide, M2O heating in air?
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Li
-
Na
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Rb
-
K
-
-
28) Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne?
-
O2
-
Br
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NaNH2
-
HCl
-
-
29) Which of the following exhibits only +3 oxidation state?
-
Ac
-
Pa
-
U
-
Th
-
-
30) Low spin complex of d6-cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy:-
-
-
31) The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given as:-
-
-
32) Given the reaction between 2 gases represented by A2 and B2 to give the compound AB(g).
A2(g) + Ba(g)⇌ 2AB(g).
At equilibrium, the concentration
Of A2 = 3.0 × 10-3 M
Of B2 = 4.2 × 10-3 M
If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at 527°C, then the value of Kc will be:-
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0.62
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4.5
-
2.0
-
1.9
-
-
33) Chloramphenicol is an:
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Antiseptic and disinfectant
-
Antibiotic broad spectrum
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Antifertility drug
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Antihistaminic
-
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34) Four successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For which one of them the standard potential
value has a positive sign?
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Cu (Z = 29)
-
Fe (Z = 26)
-
Co (Z = 27)
-
Ni (Z = 28)
-
-
35) The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compound is described mainly to:-
-
their ability to adopt variable oxidation states
-
their chemical reactivity
-
their magnetic behaviour
-
their unfilled d-orbitals
-
-
36) The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is?
-
4
-
8
-
16
-
32
-
-
37) What is the product obtained in the following reaction?
-
-
38) In a set reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D.
-
-
39) In Dumas’ method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 of an organic compound gave 55 mLof nitrogen collected at 300K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be
(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)
-
14.45
-
15.45
-
16.45
-
17.45
-
-
40) Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent?
-
-
41) Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following?
-
CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN
-
-
-
-
-
42) Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule among the following which is linear?
-
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
-
CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
-
CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3
-
CH2 = CH – CH2 – C ≡ CH
-
-
43) In the following reactions,
The major products (A) and (C) are respectively-
-
-
44) The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for halogens. By doing so it.
-
Increase the concentration of NO3 – ions
-
Decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed
-
Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
-
Increase the solubility product of AgCl
-
-
45) The correct IUPAC name of the compound
is-
-
3- (1-ethyl propyl) hex-1-ene
-
4-Ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene
-
3-Ethyl-4-ethenyl heptane
-
3-Ethyl-4-propyl-hex-5-ene
-
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1) When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as:
-
Imbricate
-
Twisted
-
Valvate
-
Vexillary
-
-
2) An aggregate fruit is the one which develops from:
-
Multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium
-
Complete inflorescence
-
Multicarpellary superior ovary
-
Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
-
-
3) Commonly used vector for human genome sequencing are:
-
BAC and YAC
-
Expression vectors
-
T/A cloning vectors
-
t-DNA
-
-
4) To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?
-
Palisade parenchyma
-
Both apical and axillary meristems
-
Epidermis only
-
Apical meristem only
-
-
5) Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of:
-
The kidney, leading to suppression of renin angiotensin-aldosterone pathway.
-
The adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
-
The pancreas, leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.
-
The parathyroid glands, leading to an increased metabolic rate.
-
-
6) Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor neuron occurs at the:
-
Transverse tubules
-
Myofibril
-
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
-
Neuromuscular junction
-
-
7) Planaria possess high capacity of:
-
Regeneration
-
Alternation of generation
-
Bioluminescence
-
Metamorphosis
-
-
8) Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in:
-
Banana
-
Tomato
-
Potato
-
Apple
-
-
9) Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in:
-
Young leaves
-
Roots
-
Buds
-
Senescent leaves
-
-
10) Geitonogamy involves:
-
Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from the same flower.
-
Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population.
-
Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from another flower of plant belonging to a distant population.
-
Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant.
-
-
11) Viruses have:
-
Prokaryotic nucleus
-
Single chromosome
-
Both DNA and RNA
-
DNA enclosed in a protein coat
-
-
12) How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?
-
Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output.
-
Both heart rate and cardiac output increase.
-
Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases.
-
Reduces both heart rate and cardiac output.
-
-
13) A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is
-
Torpedo
-
Trygon
-
Scoliodon
-
Pristis
-
-
14) An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridisation technique does not use:
-
Blotting
-
Autoradiography
-
PCR
-
Electrophoresis
-
-
15) Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in:
-
Mode of nutrition
-
Cell shape
-
Mode of reproduction
-
Cell membrane structure
-
-
16) If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain?
Plant → mice → snake → peacock
-
0.002 J
-
0.2 J
-
0.0002 J
-
0.02 J
-
-
17) Which one of the following are analogous structures?
-
Gills of prawn and lungs of man
-
Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
-
Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse
-
Wings of bat and wings of pigeon
-
-
18) Dr.F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly cut coleoptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment?
-
It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth promoting substances.
-
It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin.
-
It demonstrated polar movement of auxins.
-
It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin.
-
-
19) Macromolecule chitin is
-
Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
-
Phosphorus containing polysaccharide
-
Sulphur containing polysaccharide
-
Simple polysaccharide
-
-
20) The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are
-
Proteins
-
Nucleic acids
-
Carbohydrates
-
Vitamins
-
-
21) A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characteristics.
-
-
22) Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column I with their absorption site and mechanism in column II.
-
-
23) A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of
-
Deficiency of iodine in diet
-
Low secretion of growth hormone
-
Cancer of the thyroid gland
-
Over secretion of pars distalis
-
-
24) The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.
-
A – Trachea – long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air
-
B – Pleural membrane- surrounds ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing
-
C – Alveoli – thin walled vascular bag-like structures for exchange of gases
-
D – Lower end of lungs – diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration
-
-
25) Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its function/s.
-
A – Pulmonary vein – takes impure blood from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg
-
B – Pulmonary artery – takes blood from heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg
-
C – Vena cava – takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg
-
D – Dorsal aorta – takes blood from heart to body parts, PO2 = 95 mm Hg
-
-
26) The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the
-
Contraction of both the atria
-
Initiation of ventricular contraction
-
Beginning of systole
-
End of systole
-
-
27) Figure shows human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and/ or functions.
-
A – Adrenal gland – located at the anterior part of the kidney, secretes catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown
-
B – Pelvis – broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to the loops of Henle
-
C – Medulla – inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons
-
D – Cortex – outer part of kidney and does not contain any part of nephrons
-
-
28) Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans.
-
A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people.
-
Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation.
-
The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.
-
The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.
-
-
29) The characteristic and an example of a synovial joint human is
-
-
30) A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D.
-
A – Receptor, C – Synaptic vesicles
-
B – Synaptic connection, D – K+
-
A – Neurotransmitter, B – Synaptic cleft
-
C – Neurotransmitter, D – Ca++
-
-
31) Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which gives correct identification along with its functions/ characteristics.
-
A - Retina – contains photo receptors rods and cones.
-
B - Blind spot – has only a few rods and cones.
-
C - Aqueous chamber- reflects the light which does not pass through the lens.
-
D - Choroid – its anterior part forms ciliary body.
-
-
32) Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?
-
Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
-
Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones.
-
Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amounts that act as intercellular messengers are known as hormones.
-
Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland.
-
-
33) Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function / deficiency symptom.
-
-
34) What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
-
Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa
-
Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa, Spermatid
-
Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid
-
Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa
-
-
35) Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of
-
Progesterone
-
FSH
-
Oxytocin
-
Vasopressin
-
-
36) Which one of the following is not the function of placenta?
-
It facilities supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo.
-
It secretes estrogen.
-
It facilities the removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from the embryo.
-
It secretes oxytocin during parturition.
-
-
37) In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?
-
-
38) Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane:
-
Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part.
-
Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson.
-
Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport.
-
Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane.
-
-
39) Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. Which is this stage?
-
Prophase of mitosis
-
Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis
-
Prophase I during meiosis
-
Prophase II during meiosis
-
-
40) Which one out of A –D given below correctly represents structural formula of the basic amino acid?
-
A
-
B
-
C
-
D
-
-
41) What is true about ribosomes?
-
These are found only in eukaryotic cells.
-
These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs.
-
The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80s where ‘s’ stands for sedimentation coefficient.
-
These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.
-
-
42) Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular weight organic compound in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank component “X” in it:
-
-
43) Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesised in:
-
Nucleoplasm
-
Ribosomes
-
Lysosomes
-
Nucleolus
-
-
44) F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of:
-
Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
-
Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
-
Co-dominance
-
Dihybrid cross
-
-
45) What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
-
Increasing cranial capacity
-
Upright posture
-
Shortening of laws
-
Binocular vision
-
-
46) If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA strand sequence?
-
AACTG
-
ATCGU
-
TTAGU
-
UAGAC
-
-
47) Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?
-
-
48) A normal visioned man whose father was colour-blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and a normal father. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colour blind?
-
25 %
-
50 %
-
100 %
-
Zero percent
-
-
49) Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system:
-
Myasthenia gravis – autoimmune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
-
Gout – inflammation of joint due to extra deposition of calcium
-
Muscular dystrophy – age related shortening of muscles
-
Osteoporosis – decreases in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
-
-
50) A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?
-
Blood group O
-
Blood group A
-
Blood group B
-
Blood group AB
-
-
51) The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70-80 percent) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?
-
Proximal convoluted tubule
-
Descending limb of loop of Henle
-
Ascending limb of loop of Henle
-
Distal convoluted tubule
-
-
52) The human hind brain comprises of three parts, one of which is?
-
Cerebellum
-
Hypothalamus
-
Spinal cord
-
Corpus callosum
-
-
53) Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the example of those that can easily pass through the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus)?
-
Somatostatin, oxytocin
-
Cortisol, testosterone
-
Insulin, glucagon
-
Thyroxine, insulin
-
-
54) The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of:
-
Glucagon
-
Androgens
-
Progesterone
-
Intestinal mucus
-
-
55) What is the function of germ pore?
-
Release of male gametes
-
Emergence of radicle
-
Absorption of water for seed germination
-
Initiation of pollen tube
-
-
56) For its action, nitrogenase requires
-
Super oxygen radicals
-
High input of energy
-
Light
-
Mn2+
-
-
57) In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used
-
To keep the cultures free of infection
-
As selectable markers
-
To select healthy vectors
-
As sequences from where replication starts
-
-
58) Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what do the temperature and light control in the plants?
-
Fruit elongation
-
Apical dominance
-
Flowering
-
Closure of stomata
-
-
59) What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?
-
Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
-
The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
-
The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
-
The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints
-
-
60) Select the correct statements about biodiversity.
-
Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries.
-
The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as numerous rare animals.
-
Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
-
Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.
-
-
61) The domestic sewage in large cities
-
Have very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts
-
Has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
-
Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs)
-
When treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen
-
-
62) Plants with ovaries having only one or few ovules are generally pollinated by
-
Wind
-
Bees
-
Butterflies
-
Birds
-
-
63) Read the following four statements (A - D)
Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.
Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium.
Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants.
Beer is manufactured by the distillation of fermented grape juice.
How many of the above statement are wrong?
-
One
-
Two
-
Three
-
Four
-
-
64) The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of
-
Cartilage
-
Ligament
-
Areolar tissue
-
Bone
-
-
65) As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has
-
Relatively thicker periderm
-
More abundant secondary xylem
-
Many xylem bundles
-
Inconspicuous annual rings
-
-
66) Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics?
-
Maize: C3 pathway, Closed vascular bundles, Scutellum
-
Pea: C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, Vexillary aestivation
-
Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry
-
Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation
-
-
67) Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances is correctly categorised?
-
Secretin and rhodopsin – Polypeptide hormones
-
Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid hormones
-
Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach
-
Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in striated muscles
-
-
68) Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use
-
-
69) Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres.
-
Anaphase II
-
Metaphase I
-
Metaphase II
-
Anaphase I
-
-
70) Which one of the following statements is wrong?
-
Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin.
-
When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilisation does not take place.
-
Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell.
-
Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months.
-
-
71) The idea of mutations was brought forth by
-
Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage.
-
Hugo do Vries, who worked on evening primrose.
-
Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum.
-
Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population.
-
-
72) Read the following four statements (A - D).
· In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.
· Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation.
· The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes.
· Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
How many of the above statements are right?
-
One
-
Two
-
Three
-
Four
-
-
73) Arteries are best defined as the vessels which
-
Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
-
Supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
-
Carry blood away from the heart to different organs
-
Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
-
-
74) Bundle of His is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?
-
Pancreas
-
Brain
-
Heart
-
Kidney
-
-
75) The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is a derivative of
-
Vitamin A
-
Vitamin B1
-
Vitamin C
-
Vitamin D
-
-
76) Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?
-
Fibrinogen
-
Albumin
-
Serum amylase
-
Globulin
-
-
77) When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is
-
Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
-
Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
-
Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
-
Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
-
-