Question Paper (Section wise)
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1) A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is
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2 s
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π s
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2π s
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1 s
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2) An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is.
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10 times greater
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5 times greater
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Smaller
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Equal
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3) An electron of mass m with an initial velocity enters an electric fie at t = 0. If λ0 its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then de- Broglie wavelength initially, then de-Broglie wavelength at time is
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λ0t
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λ0
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4) For a radioactive material, half -life 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is
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30
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10
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20
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15
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5) When the light of frequency 2ν0 (where ν0 threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5ν0, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
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4 : 1
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1 : 4
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1 : 2
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2 : 1
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6) The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atomic is
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2 : -1
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1 : -1
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1 : 1
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1 : -2
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7) An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity. The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along.
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-y direction
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+z direction
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-z direction
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-x direction
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8) The refractive index of the material of a prism is and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is -
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30°
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45°
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60°
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Zero
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9) The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance
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1.389 H
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138.88 H
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0.138 H
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13.89 H
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10) The diagram below show regions of equipotential.
A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram.
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In all the four cases the work done is the same.
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Minimum work is required to move q in figure (a)
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Maximum work is required to move in q in figure (b)
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Maximum work is required to move in q in figure (c)
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11) Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will:
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move towards each other
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move away from each other
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will become stationary
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keep floating at the same distance between them
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12) The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t= 2s is:
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5 m/s2
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- 4 m/s2
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- 8 m/s2
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0
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13) One end of string of length is connected to a particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force on the particle (directed towards center) will be (T represents the tension in the string)
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-
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Zero
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T
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14) A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at 2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its time period in seconds is:
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15) Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarized light I0 is incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such that axis makes an angle 45° with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light through P2 is:
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16) The bulk modulus of spherical object is ‘B’ If it is subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’ , the fractional; deceases in radius is:
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17) In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is Erms = 6V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is:
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2.83 × 10-8T
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0.70 × 10-8T
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4.23 × 10-8T
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1.41 × 10-8T
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18) A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?
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0.25 rad/s2
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25 rad/s2
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5 m/s2
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25 m/s2
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19) A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of the following gives the density of the gas?
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mKT
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P/ (kT)
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Pm / (kT)
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P / (kTV)
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20) A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of 3s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg. The time period of oscillations becomes 5s. The value of m in kg is
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21) The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L meter long. The length of the open pipe will be
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4 L
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L
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2 L
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22) Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n – 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be
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2
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1
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4
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3
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23) An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field intensity 2 × 105 N/C. it experiences a torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is
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4 μ C
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5 mC
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2 mC
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5 mC
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24) A parallel – plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is file with four dielectric materials having dielectric constants k1, k2, k3 and k4 as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in the capacitor. Then its dielectric constant k is given by
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k = k1 + k2 + k3 + 3k4
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-
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25) The potential difference (VA - VB)between the points A and B, where I=2A in the given figure is 34
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+ 9 V
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- 3 V
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+ 3 V
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+ 6 V
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26) A filament bulb (500W, 100V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. the value of R is
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13 Ω
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230 Ω
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46 Ω
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26 Ω
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27) A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the loop is B. it is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be
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2n2 B
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nB
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n2 B
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2nB
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28) What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
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√gR
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√2gR
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√3gR
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√5gR
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29) When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is
. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is:
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4λ
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5λ
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3λ
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30) A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:
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Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
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Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more wore to be done.
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Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
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Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
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31) A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then it opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf’s is:
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5 : 1
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5 : 4
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3 : 4
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3 : 2
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32) An astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance:
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37.3 cm
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46.0 cm
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50.0 cm
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54.0 cm
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33) Two non–mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL(p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to:
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{1 + (n + 1) p} ρ
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{2 + (n + 1) p} ρ
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{2 + (n - 1) p} ρ
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{1 + (n - 1) p} ρ
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34) To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:
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A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
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A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
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A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
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A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
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35) A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one–quarter of the heat produced is observed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is:
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 105J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]
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34 km
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544 km
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136 km
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68 km
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36) The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is:
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1 : 2
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1: 2√2
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1 : 4
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1 : √2
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37) A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 V and a resistance 40.8 ohm all connected in series. If the ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of 20 ohm, the regarding in the ammeter will be-
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0.5 A
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0.25 A
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2 A
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1 A
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38) The value of coefficient if volume expansion of glycerin is 5 × 10-4 K-1. The fractional change in the density of glycerin for a rise of 40°C in its temperature is-
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0.015
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0.020
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0.025
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0.010
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39) The heart of a man pumps 5 litres of blood trough the arteries per minute at a pressure of 150 mm of mercury. If the density of mercury be 13.6 ×103kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2 then the power of heart in watt is-
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1.70
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2.25
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3.0
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1.50
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40) A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on right angled prism. The refractive index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.444 and 1.47, respectively.
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separate the blue colour part from the red and green colours
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separate all the three colours from one another
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not-separate the three colours at all
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separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
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41) A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width 0.1 m having 50 turns of wire is suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2 Weber/m2. The coli carries a current of 2A. If the plane of the coil is inclined at an angle of 30° with the direction of the field, the torque required to keep the coil in stable equilibrium will be;
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0.15 Nm
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0.20 Nm
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0.24 Nm
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0.12Nm
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42) An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the path of electron. What will be the direction of current, if any, induced in the coil?
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Abcd
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Adcb
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The current will revers its direction as the electron goes past the coil
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No current induced
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43) A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium and helium. Then:
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The helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus.
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The helium nucleus has les momentum then the thorium nucleus.
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The helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium nucleus.
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The helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus.
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44) A for
is acting at a point
. The value of α for which an angular momentum about origin is conserved is:
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-1
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2
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Zero
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1
-
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45) Water rises to a height ‘h’ in capillary tube. If the length of capillary tube above the surface of water is made less than ‘h’, then:
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water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then stars overflowing like a fountain.
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water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays there without overflowing.
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water rises upto a point a little below the top and stays there.
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water does not rises at all.
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1) The correct difference between first and second-order reaction is that
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A first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed
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The half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0 ; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]0
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The rate of a first – order reaction does not depend on reaction concentrations; the rate of a second order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations
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The rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentration; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations
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2) Among CaH2,BeH2, BaH2,the order of ionic character is
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BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
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CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
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BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
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BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
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3) Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below:
Then the species undergoing disproportionation is
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Br2
-
-
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HBrO
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4) In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum?
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0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 k
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0.18 g of water
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18 mL of water
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10-3 mol of water
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5) Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridization sp2, sp2, sp, sp from left to right atoms?
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CH2=CH-CH= CH2
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CH2=CH-CH≡CH2
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HC≡C-C≡ CH
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CH3-CH≡CH-CH3
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6) Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable?
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7) Which of the following is correct with respect to –I effect of the substituents? (R=alkyl)
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-NH2 > -OR > -F
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-NR2 < -F < -OR
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-NH2 < -OR < -F
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-NR2 > -OR > -F
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8) Identify the major products P, Q and R in this following sequence of reactions:
-
-
9) Which of the following compounds can from a zwitter ion?
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Benzoic acid
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Acetanilide
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Aniline
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Glycine
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10) Which one of the following statement is not correct?
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The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the presence of a catalyst in the reaction equilibrium
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Enzymes catalyze mainly bio-chemical reactions
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Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity enzyme.
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Catalyst does not initiate any reaction.
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11) Identify A and predict the type of reaction
-
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12) The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complexes: CoCl3. NH3, CoCl3. 5NH3, CoCl3. 4NH3 respectively is:
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3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
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3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
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2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 21 AgCl
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1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
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13) The correct statement regarding electrophile is:
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Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile
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Electrophile are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electron from a nucleophile
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Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
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Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electron from a nucleophile
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14) A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulted container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy ∆U of the gas in joules will be:
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-500 J
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-505 J
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+505 J
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1136.25 J
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15) Which of the following reaction is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine?
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Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
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Stephens reaction
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Gabriels phthalimide synthesis
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Carbylamine reaction
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16) With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?
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Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
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Both bond angle and bond length change
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Both bond angles and bond length remains same
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Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
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17) In which pair of ions both the species contain S-S bond?
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18) It is because inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate on bonding that:
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Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb4+ is reducing
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Sn2+ and Pb4+ are both oxidising and reducing
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Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
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Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
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19) Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and is structural?
-
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20) In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements is incorrect?
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Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric.
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It is rendered passive by nitric acid.
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It forms Be2C.
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Its salts rarely hydrolyze.
-
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21) Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour?
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CaF2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF
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Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
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3S + 2H28O4 → 3SO2 + 2H2O
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C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H20
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22) Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?
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dxy, dx2y2
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dx2, dxy
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dxy, dyz
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dz2, dx2-y2
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23) The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are
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square planar, sp3 d2
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octahedral, sp3d2
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trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
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planar triangle, sp3d3
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24) Among the following, which one is a wrong statement?
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has bent geometry
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PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist
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pπ-dπ bonds are present in SO2
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SeF4 and CH4 have same shape
-
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25) The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is
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CN– > Br– > C6H–5> NH3
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NH3 > CN– > Br– > C6H–5
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CN– > C6H–5 > Br– > NH3
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Br– > CN–> NH3> C6H–5
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26) Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect?
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Ce (+ 4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.
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Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
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The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.
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All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium
-
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27) Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin complexes of
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d9
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d7
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d8
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d4
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28) Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II and mark the correct option.
-
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29) Which of the following has longest C – O bond length? (Free C – O bond length in CO is 1.128 A.)
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Ni (CO)4
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[Co(CO)4]2−
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[Fe(CO)4]2−
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[Mn(CO)6]+
-
-
30) The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2– electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is:
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10−14 atm
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10−12 atm
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10−10 atm
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10−4 atm
-
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31) The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
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Entropy
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Internal energy
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Enthalpy
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Activation energy
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32) The ionic radii of A+ and B− ions are 0.98 × 10−10 m and 1.81 × 10−10 m. The coordination number of each ion in AB is:
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6
-
4
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8
-
2
-
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33) Which is the correct statement for the given acids?
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phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid.
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phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.
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Both are triprotic acids
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Both are diprotic acids.
-
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34) Fog is a colloidal solution of:
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Liquid in gas
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Gas in liquid
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Solid is gas
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Gas in gas
-
-
35) Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1:1 mol mixture of benzene and toluene is correct at 25° C. (Given Vapour Pressure Data is 25° C, benzene = 12.8 kJ toluene = 3.85 kPa).
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The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
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The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
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The vapour will contain an equal amounts benzene and toluene.
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Not enough information is given to make prediction.
-
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36) The correct statement regarding the comparison staggered and eclipsed conformation of ethane,
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The staggered conformation of ethane is low stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain
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The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain
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The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.
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The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain.
-
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37) The rate constant of the reaction A → B is 0.6 × 10−23 mole per second. If the concentration of A is 5 M, then concentration of B after 20 minutes is:
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0.72 M
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1.08 M
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3.60 M
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0.36 M
-
-
38) The formation of the oxide ion, O-2 (g), from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below:
O (g) + e− → O⎺ (g) ; ∆fH⎺ = −141 kJ mol-1
O⎺ (g) + e− → O2⎺ (g) ; ∆fH⎺ = +1780 kJ mol-1
Thus process of formation of O2⎺ in gas phase is unfavourable even though O2⎺ is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that,
-
addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion
-
electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving nobles gas configuration.
-
O⎺ ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom.
-
oxygen is more electronegative.
-
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39) What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9 % solution of AgNO3 is mixed with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution?
Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5
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14g
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28 g
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3.5 g
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7 g
-
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40) Which is the correct order of increasing energy of the listed orbitals in the atom of titanium? (At. No. Z = 22)
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3s 3p 4s 3d
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3s 4s 3p 3d
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4s 3s 3p 3d
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3s 3p 3d 4s
-
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41) Reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by elimination of water. The reagent is:
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sodium hydrogen sulphite
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a Grignard reagent
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hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution
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hydrocyanic acid
-
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42) The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI> HBr > HCl.
What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen fluoride?
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The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarizes the HF molecules.
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The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher than for other elements I the group
-
There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF molecules.
-
The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than in other hydrogen halides.
-
-
43) The name of complex ion, FeCN63- is:
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Hexacyanidoferrate III ion
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Hexacyanoiron III ion
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Hexacyanitoferrate III ion
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Tricyanoferrate III ion
-
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44) Method which Aniline cannot be prepared is:
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Potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution.
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hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic solution.
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reduction of nitrobenzene with bromine in alkaline solution.
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reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in ethanol.
-
-
45) If the equilibrium constant for N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g) is K, the equilibrium constant for
will be:
-
K2
-
K1/2
-
-
K
-
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1) Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterised by crop and gizzard in their digestive system.
-
Aves
-
Reptilia
-
Amphibia
-
Osteichthyes
-
-
2) Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the ocean?
-
Cyanobacteria
-
Diatoms
-
Dinoflagellates
-
Euglenoids
-
-
3) Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
-
Forewings with darker tegmina
-
Presence of caudal styles
-
Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment
-
Presence of anal cerci
-
-
4) Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
-
Moth
-
Tunicate
-
Earthworm
-
Starfish
-
-
5) Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
-
Camelus
-
Chelone
-
Macropus
-
Psittacula
-
-
6) The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
-
Smooth muscles attached to the iris
-
Ligaments attached to the iris
-
Ligaments attached to the ciliary body
-
Smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
-
-
7) Which of the following structure or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?
-
-
8) Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
-
Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
-
Progesterone and Aldosterone
-
Aldosterone and Prolactin
-
Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
-
-
9) Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?
-
Estradiol
-
Ecdysone
-
Epinephrine
-
Estriol
-
-
10) Match the items given in column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
-
-
11) Match the items given in Column I with those in Colum Ii and select the correct option given below
-
-
12) Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
-
Goblet cell
-
Mucous cell
-
Chief cells
-
Parietal cells
-
-
13) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
-
-
14) Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
-
Detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
-
Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
-
Binds to troponin to remove the masking of active site on actin for myosin.
-
Prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
-
-
15) Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
-
Botulism
-
Silicosis
-
Anthracis
-
Emphysema
-
-
16) Which of these statements is incorrect?
-
Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
-
Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
-
Enzymes of TCA cycle are present mitochondrial matrix.
-
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the outer mitochondrial membrane.
-
-
17) Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
-
Nuclei acids and SER
-
DNA and RNA
-
Proteins and lipids
-
Free ribosomes and RER
-
-
18) Select the incorrect match:
-
-
19) If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?
-
11
-
33
-
333
-
1
-
-
20) Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:
-
Bee
-
Wind
-
Bat
-
Water
-
-
21) Transplantation of tissues / organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections?
-
Cell-mediated immune response
-
Humoral immune response
-
Physiological immune response
-
Autoimmune response
-
-
22) Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are:
-
Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
-
Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
-
Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
-
Haplontic, Diplontic
-
-
23) A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as a:
-
Vector
-
Plasmid
-
Structural gene
-
Selectable marker
-
-
24) A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
-
Autogamy and geitonogamy
-
Geitonogamy and xenogamy
-
Cleistogamy and xenogamy
-
Autogamy and xenogamy
-
-
25) Which statement is wrong for Krebs cycle?
-
There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2.
-
During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised.
-
The cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid.
-
There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+.
-
-
26) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in:
-
C4 plants
-
C2 plants
-
C3 and C4 plants
-
C3 plants
-
-
27) During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate:
-
The lagging strand towards the replication fork.
-
The leading strand away from the replication fork.
-
The lagging strand away from the replication fork.
-
The leading strand towards the replication fork.
-
-
28) Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in an animal cell?
-
t – RNA
-
m – RNA
-
mi – RNA
-
r – RNA
-
-
29) GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on:
-
Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
-
Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
-
Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin.
-
Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.
-
-
30) What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on an agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
-
The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
-
Positively charged fragments move to farther end.
-
Negatively charged fragments do not move.
-
The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves.
-
-
31) Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because:
-
Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
-
Bones lose their sensitivity to growth hormone in adults.
-
Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth
-
Growth hormone becomes inactive in adults.
-
-
32) DNA replication in bacteria occurs:
-
Within nucleolus
-
Prior to fission
-
Just before transcription
-
During S phase
-
-
33) Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridisation experiments?
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1840 – 1850
-
1857 – 1869
-
1870 – 1877
-
1856 – 1863
-
-
34) Viroids differ from viruses in having:
-
DNA molecules without protein coat
-
RNA molecules with protein coat
-
RNA molecules without protein coat
-
DNA molecules with protein coat
-
-
35) MALT constitutes about________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
-
20%
-
70%
-
10%
-
50%
-
-
36) Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them?
-
Methanobacterium: Lactic acid
-
Penicillium notatum: Acetic acid
-
Saccharomyces cerevisiae: Ethanol
-
Acetobacter aceti: Antibiotics
-
-
37) A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in
-
Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
-
Increased population of aquatic organisms due to minerals
-
Drying of the lake due to algal bloom
-
Increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients
-
-
38) The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall occur in
-
Eel
-
Phytoplankton
-
Seagull
-
Crab
-
-
39) Which of the following sets of diseases are caused by bacteria?
-
Herpes and influenza
-
Cholera and tetanus
-
Typhoid and smallpox
-
Tetanus and mumps
-
-
40) Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:
-
-
41) Choose the correct statement.
-
All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum.
-
All mammals are viviparous.
-
All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins.
-
All reptiles have a three-chambered heart.
-
-
42) Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:
A. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr.
B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants.
C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by R. H. Whittaker.
D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth.
-
A and B
-
B and C
-
C and D
-
A and D
-
-
43) In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?
-
Vas deferens
-
Seminal vesicles
-
Mushroom glands
-
Testes
-
-
44) Smooth muscles are
-
Voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
-
Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
-
Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
-
Involuntary, cylindrical, striated
-
-
45) Oxidative phosphorylation is
-
Formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation
-
Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group form a substrate to ADP
-
Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
-
Addition of phosphate group to ATP
-
-
46) Which of the following is least likely to be involved in stabilising the three-dimensional folding of most proteins?
-
Ester bonds
-
Hydrogen bonds
-
Electrostatic interaction
-
Hydrophobic interaction
-
-
47) Which of the following describes the graph correctly?
-
Exothermic reaction with energy A in the absence of enzyme and B in the presence of enzyme.
-
Endothermic reaction with energy A in the presence of enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme.
-
Exothermic reaction with energy A in the presence of enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme.
-
Endothermic reaction with energy A in the absence of enzyme and B in the presence of enzyme.
-
-
48) When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?
-
Both G2 / M and M
-
G1 / S
-
G2 / M
-
M
-
-
49) Match the stages of meiosis in Column-I to their characteristic features in Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:
-
-
50) Which hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
-
Insulin and glucagon
-
Angiotensin and epinephrine
-
Gastrin and insulin
-
Cholecystokinin and secretin
-
-
51) The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of lungs is
-
Less than that of carbon dioxide
-
Equal to that in the blood
-
More than that in the blood
-
Less than that in the blood
-
-
52) Choose the correct statement.
-
Receptors do not produce graded potentials.
-
Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure.
-
Meissner’s corpuscles are thermoreceptors.
-
Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarised during darkness and become hyperpolarised in response to the light stimulus.
-
-
53) Graves’ disease is caused due to
-
Hypersecretion of adrenal gland
-
Hyposecretion of thyroid gland
-
Hypersecretion of thyroid gland
-
Hypersecretion of adrenal gland
-
-
54) Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites of myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction.
-
Potassium
-
Calcium
-
Magnesium
-
Sodium
-
-
55) Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
-
Cartilaginous endoskeleton : Chondrichthyes
-
Viviparous : Mammalia
-
Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw : Chordata
-
3- chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle : Reptilia
-
-
56) Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
-
Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.
-
Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
-
Mutations inactive the cell control.
-
Mutations inhibit the production of telomerase.
-
-
57) The amino acid tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of:
-
Melatonin and serotonin
-
Thyroxine and triiodothyronine
-
Estrogen and progesterone
-
Cortisol and cortisone
-
-
58) Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life:
The earliest organism that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
The first autotrophic organisms were chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
-
(a) is correct but (b) is false.
-
(b) is correct but (a) is false.
-
Both (a) and (b) are correct.
-
Both (a) and (b) are false.
-
-
59) Reduction in pH of blood will:
-
Reduce the rate of heart beat
-
Reduce the blood supply to the brain
-
Decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen
-
Release bicarbonate ions by the liver
-
-
60) Analogous structures are a result of:
-
Divergent evolution
-
Convergent ancestry
-
Shared ancestry
-
Stabilising selection
-
-
61) Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
-
HindII
-
Protease
-
DNaseI
-
RNase
-
-
62) The term ecosystem was coined by:
-
E. P. Odum
-
A. G. Tansley
-
E. Haeckel
-
E. Warming
-
-
63) Which of the following statements is wrong?
-
Sucrose is a disaccharide.
-
Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
-
Uracil is a pyrimidine.
-
Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
-
-
64) In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of gametes requires:
-
Wind
-
Insects
-
Birds
-
Water
-
-
65) When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic model given as dN/dt = rN (1-N/K):
-
when N/K is exactly one.
-
when N nears the carrying capacity of habitat.
-
when N/K equals zero.
-
when death rate is greater than birth date.
-
-
66) Which one of the following statements is not true?
-
Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther.
-
Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin.
-
Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies.
-
Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes.
-
-
67) Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organism on bare rock?
-
Lichens
-
Liverworts
-
Mosses
-
Green algae
-
-
68) Which one of the following is the starter codon?
-
AUG
-
UGA
-
UAA
-
UAG
-
-
69) Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?
-
Ossified endoskeleton
-
Breathing using lungs
-
Viviparity
-
Warm blooded nature
-
-
70) Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of binomial nomenclature?
-
Biological names can be written in any language.
-
The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet.
-
The names are written in Latin and are italicised.
-
When written by hand, the names are to be underlined.
-
-
71) Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:
-
Same as that in the aorta
-
More than that in the carotid
-
More than that in the pulmonary vein
-
Less than that in the venacava
-
-
72) Cotyledon of maize grain is called:
-
Plumule
-
Coleorhiza
-
Coleoptile
-
Scutellum
-
-
73) Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters are:
-
Primary consumers
-
Secondary consumers
-
Tertiary consumers
-
Detritivores
-
-
74) If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?
-
Fibrinogen in plasma
-
Serum albumins
-
Haemocytes
-
Serum globulins
-
-
75) The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rock and/or host tissues are:
-
Rhizoids
-
Fimbriae
-
Mesosomes
-
Holdfast
-
-
76) Increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive tropic levels is known as:
-
Biomagnification
-
Biodeterioration
-
Biotransformation
-
Biogeochemical cycling
-
-
77) Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect development are the characteristics of phylum:
-
Coelenterate
-
Porifera
-
Mollusca
-
Protozoa
-
-
78) The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from water molecules. Which one of the following pairs of elements is involved in this reaction?
-
Manganese and chlorine
-
Manganese and potassium
-
Magnesium and molybdenum
-
Magnesium and chlorine
-
-
79) The primary dentition in human differs from permanent dentition in not having one of the following type of teeth:
-
Canine
-
Premolars
-
Molars
-
Incisors
-
-
80) Coconut water from a tender coconut is:
-
Immature embryo
-
Free nuclear endosperm
-
Innermost layers of the seed coat
-
Degenerated nucellus
-
-
81) Which of the following layers in an antral follicle is acellular?
-
Granulosa
-
Theca interna
-
Stroma
-
Zona pellucida
-
-
82) The introduction of t-DNA into plates involves:
-
Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
-
Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
-
Exposing the plates to cold for a brief period
-
Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
-
-
83) In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit together?