Question Paper (Section wise)
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1) The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline of angle ‘θ’ without slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is:
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5 : 7
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2 : 3
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2 : 5
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7 : 5
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2) A black hole is an object whose gravitational fields is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 × 1024 kg) have to be compressed to be a black hole?
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10-9 m
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10-6 m
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10-2 m
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100 m
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3) Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represented by : -
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4) Copper of fixed volume V; is drawn into wire of length ‘l. When this wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’, the extension produced in the wire is ∆l. Which of the following graphs is a straight line?
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Δl versus l2
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Δl versus l
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5) A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius ‘r’ coalesce to form a single drop of radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. If ‘T’ is the surface tension of the liquid, then:
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-
-
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Energy is neither released nor absorbed
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6) Steam at 100° C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When water acquires a temperature of 80°C, the mass of water present will be: [Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g-1 °C-1 and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g-1]
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24 g
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31.5 g
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42.5 g
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22.5 g
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7) Certain quantity of water cools from 70° C to 60° C in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings is :-
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45°C
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20°C
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42°C
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10°C
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8) A monoatomic gas at a pressure p, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final pressure of the gas is :
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64P
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32P
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16P
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9) A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in fig. The work done by the system in the cycle is:
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P0 V0
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2P0 V0
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zero
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10) The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon of same energy E are related by:
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-
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λp ∞ λe
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-
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11) Ratio of longest wavelength corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is-
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12) A current loop in a magnetic field
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Can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable.
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Experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or non-uniform in all orientation
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Can be in equilibrium in one orientation
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Can be equilibrium in two orientations, both the equilibrium states are unstable
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13) A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is-
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Same at all the three points A, B and C
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Maximum at A
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Maximum at B
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Maximum at C
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14) A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is-
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-
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g/L
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2g/L
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15) A wire of resistance 4Ω is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be-
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16 Ω
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2 Ω
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4 Ω
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8 Ω
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16) The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is
m/s. It’s velocity (in m/s) at point B is-
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17) A body of mass ‘m’ is taken from the earth’s surface to the height equal to twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be –
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mg2R
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3 mgR
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18) A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the next 5seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is-
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h1 = h2 = h3
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h1 =2h2 = 3h2
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h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2
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19) ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre.
represent three forces acting along the sides AB BC and AC respectively. If the total torque about O is zero then the magnitude of
is:
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2(F1 + F2)
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F1 + F2
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F1 - F2
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20) When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along:-
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the radius
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the tangent to the orbit
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A line perpendicular to the plane of rotation.
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The line making an angle of 45° to the plane of rotation.
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21) A spherical planet has a mass Mp and Diameter Dp. A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity, equal to:
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GMp/Dp2
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4GMpm/Dp2
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4GMp/Dp2
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GMp/Dp2
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22) A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 5R above that surface of the earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height of 2R from the surface of the earth is:-
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5
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10
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23) The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th , its weight on the surface of earth (radius R), is:-
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3R
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4R
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5R
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15R
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24) Two sources of sound placed closed to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by
Y1 = 4 sin 600 πl and y2 = 5 sin 608 πt
An observer located near these two sources ration sound will near.
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8 beats per sound with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and waning
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4 beats per sound with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and waning
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4 beats per sound with intensity ratio 25 ; 16 between waxing and waning
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8 beats per sound with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and waning
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25) When a string is divided into three segments of length 𝓁1, 𝓁2 and 𝓁3 the fundamental frequencies of these three segments are V1, V2 and V3 respectively. The original fundamental frequency (V) of the string is:
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-
-
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v = v1 + v2 + v3
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26) One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to final state B via two processes. It first undergoes isothermal expansion from volume V to 3V and then its volume is reduced from 3V to V at constant pressure. The correct P-V diagram representing the two processes is:
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27) A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the during the cycle is;-
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PV
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2PV
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4PV
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28) The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 Ω. Base current is changed by 40 µA which results in a change in collector current by2mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 4 KΩ. The voltage gain of the amplifier is-
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4000
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1000
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2000
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3000
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29) A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is –
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ε0 EAD
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E2 Ad/ ε0
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30) If ve is escape velocity and v0 is orbital velocity of a satellite for orbit close to the earth’s surface, then these are related by:
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-
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V0 = Ve
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31) In a coil of resistance 10 Ω, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it. Is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in Weber is –
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6
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4
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8
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2
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32) A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic field. What should be the energy of an α – particle to describe a circle of same radius in the same field?
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0.5 MeV
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4 MeV
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2 MeV
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1 MeV
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33) To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of the following input will be correct:
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34) The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by:
Where x and y are in meters and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave velocity is –
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3 π
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2 π
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-
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35) The dimensions of (μ0ε0)-1/2 are
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[LT-1]
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[L1/2T1/2]
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[L1/2T-1/2]
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[L-1T]
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36) A train moving at a speed of 220 ms-1 towards a stationary object, emits a sound of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the the sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train as echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the driver of the train is:
(speed of sound in air is 330 ms-1)
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5000 Hz
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3000 Hz
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3500 Hz
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4000 Hz
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37) The rate of increases of thermos e.m.f. with temperature at the neutral temperature of a thermocouple-
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Is negative
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Is positive
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Is zero
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Depend upon the choice of the two materials of the thremocouple
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38) A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC is place in a uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm BC
is , the force on the arm AC is-
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39) The power obtained in a reactor using U235 disintegration 100 kW. The mass decay of U235 per hour is-
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1 microgram
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10 microgram
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20 microgram
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40 microgram
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40) There are four light-weight-rod samples, A, B, C, D separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted-
A is feebly repelled
B is feebly attracted
C is strongly attracted
D remains unaffected
Which one of the following is true?
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A is of a non-magnetic material
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B is of a paramagnetic material
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C is of a diamagnetic material
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D is of a ferromagnetic material
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41) The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an e.m. wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be represented by-
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42) A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same direction in certain region. In an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along direction of fields, then the electron
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Will turn towards left of direction of motion
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Will turn towards right of direction of motion
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Speed will decreases
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Speed will increases
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43) The current I in a coil varies with as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf with time would
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44) In an ac circuit an alternating voltage
sin100t volts is connected to capacitor of capacity 1μF. The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is-
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20 mA
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10 mA
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100 mA
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200 mA
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45) An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and inductor L in series. If R and inductive reactance are both equal to 3Ω, the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit is-
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Zero
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π/6
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π/4
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π/2
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1) Using the Gibbs energy change,
ΔG° = +63.3 kJ, for the following reaction,
Ag2CO3 → 2Ag+(aq) +CO32− (aq)
The Ksp of Ag2CO3(s) in water at 25°C is: - (R=8.314 J K-1mol¬-1)
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3 .2 × 10–26
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8 .0 × 10–12
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2.9 × 10–3
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7.9 × 10–2
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2) The weight of silver (at wt. = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O2 at STP will be:–
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5.4 g
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10.8 g
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54.0 g
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108.0 g
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3) Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas?
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ΔS is negative and, therefore, ΔH should be highly positive
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ΔS is negative and therefore, ΔH should be highly negative
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ΔS is positive and, therefore, ΔH should be negative
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ΔS is positive and, therefore, ΔH should also be highly positive
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4) For the reversible reaction:
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) + Heat
The equilibrium shifts in forward direction:
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By Increasing the concentration of NH3 (g)
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By decreasing the pressure
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By decreasing the concentrations of N2 (g) and H2 (g)
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By increasing pressure and decreasing temperature
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5) For the reaction:
X2O4 (𝓁) → 2 XO2 (g)
ΔU = 2.1 k cal, ΔS = 20 cal K-1 at 300 K Hence ΔG is:-
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2.7 k cal
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–2.7 k cal
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9.3 k cal
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–9.3 k cal
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6) For a given exothermic reaction Kp and K’p are the equilibrium constant at temperatures T1 and T2, respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is constant in temperature range between T1 and T2, it is readily observed that:-
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KP > K’P
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KP < K’P
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KP = KP'
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7) Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented?
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H– > H > H+
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Na+ > F– > O2–
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F– > O2– > Na+
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Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3–
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8) 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much? (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)
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Mg, 0.16 g
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O2, 0.16 g
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Mg, 0.44 g
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O2, 0.28 g
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9) The pair of compounds that can exist together is:
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FeCl3, SnCl2
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HgCl2, SnCl2
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FeCl2, SnCl2
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FeCl3. KI
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10) The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is:
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II > III > I
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I > II > III
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III > II > I
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II > I > III
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11) Nylon is an example of:-
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Polythene
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Polyester
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Polysaccharide
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Polyamide
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12) XeF2 is isostructural with:
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BaCl2
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TeF2
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-
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13) The basic structural unit of silicates is:
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SiO⎺
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-
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14) Which of the following structure is similar to graphite?
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B2H6
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(BN)x
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B
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B4C
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15) The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compounds is:
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16) The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond is:
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1
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4
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8
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6
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17) An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichloride aqua chromium (II) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be:-
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0.01
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0.001
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0.002
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0.003
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18) What is the maximum numbers of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum numbers?
n = 3, l = 1 and m = −1
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2
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10
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6
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4
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19) When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of chloride changes from:
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zero to -1 and zero to +3
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zero to +1 and zero to -3
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zero to +1 and zero to -5
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zero to -1 and zero to +5
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20) Which one of the following statements is incorrect about enzyme catalysis?
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Enzymes are denaturated by ultraviolet rays and at high temperature
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Enzymes are least reactive at optimum temperature
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Enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature
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Enzyme action is specific
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21) PA and PB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal binary solution. If XA represents the mole fraction of components A, the total pressure of the solution will be:
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PB + XA (PB – PA)
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PB + XA (PA – PB)
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PA + XB (PB – PA)
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PA + XA (PB – PA)
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22) The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal sol is expressed in terms of:
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Critical micelle concentration
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Oxidation number
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Coagulation value
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Gold number
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23) Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with ℓ = 3 and n=4 is:
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10
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12
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14
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16
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24) 50mL of each gas A of gas B takes 150 and 200 seconds respectively for effusing through a pin hole under the similar condition If molecular mass of gas B is 36, the molecular mass of gas A will be
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32
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20.25
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96
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128
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25) Standard enthalpy of vapourisation ∆vapH⊕ for water at 100° C is 40.66 kJ mol-1. The internal energy of vaporization of water at 100°C (in kJ mol-1) is
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-43.76
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+40.66
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+37.56
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−43.76
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26) The number of octahedral void (s) per atom present in a cubic-close-packed structure is:
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2
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4
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1
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3
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27) The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:-
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5, 0, 0, +1/2
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5, 1, 0, +1/2
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5, 1, 1 +1/2
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6, 0, 0 +1/2
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28) Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammoniacal Ni (II). Which of the following statements is not true?
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Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry
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Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate ligand.
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Red complex had a square planar geometry.
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Complex has symmetrical H-bonding.
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29) For real gases Vander Waals equation is written as
Where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are vander Waals constant. Two sets of gases are:
O2, CO2, H2 and He
CH4, O2 and H2
The gases given in set-I in increasing order of ‘b’ and gases given in set-II in decreasing order of ‘a’, are arranged below. Select the correct order from the following:
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(I) H2 < He<O2 <CO2 ;(II) CH4>O2>H2
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(I) H2 <O2 < He<CO2 ;(II) O2>CH4>H2
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(I)He<H2 <CO2 <O2 ;(II) CH4> H2>O2
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(I) O2 <He < H2 <CO2 ;(II) H2>O2>CH4
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30) Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property indicated against it?
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Ti < V < Cr < Mn: increasing melting points
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Ti < V < Cr < Mn: increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy
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Ti < V < Cr < Mn: increasing number of oxidation states
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Ti3+ <V3+ <Cr3+ < Mn3+ : increasing magnetic moment
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31) In the replacement reaction
The reaction will be most favourable if M happens to be:
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Rb
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Li
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Na
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K
-
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32) During change of O2 to O2- ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals?
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σ* orbital
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σ orbital
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π* orbital
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π orbital
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33) Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?
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Acetamide
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2-Hydroxypropane
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Methyl acetate
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B and C are correct
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34) Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2SO3 (g) has a value of 278 at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium constant for the following reaction at the same temperature?
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6. 0 × 10−2
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1. 3 × 10−5
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1. 8 × 10−3
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3. 6 × 10−3
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35) Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them:
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C22− < He2+ < O2− < NO
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He2+ < O2− < NO < C22-
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NO < O2− < C22− < He2+
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O2− < NO < C22- < He2+
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36) An organic compound (C3H9N) (A), when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N2 gas evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl3 and caustic potash gave (C) which on reduction gave isopropyl methylamine. Predict the structure of (A):
-
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CH3CH2CH2-NH2
-
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CH3CH-NH-CH3
-
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37) If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be
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ns → np (n – 1) d → (n – 2) f
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ns → n (n – 2) f → (n -1) d → np
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ns → n (n – 1) d → (n – 2) f → np
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ns → (n – 2) f → np → (n – 1) f
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38) Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?
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CaF2
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CaCl2
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CaBr2
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CaI2
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39) Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method?
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Ni and Fe
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Ga and In
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Zr and Ti
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Ag and Au
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40) The correct order of increasing bond length of
C – H, C-O, C – C and C = C is
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C - H < C – O < C – C < C = C
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C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C
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C – C < C = C < C – O < C – H
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C – O < C - H < C – O < C = C
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41) Acidified K2Cr2O7 Solution turns green when Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to the formation of-
-
CrSO4
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Cr2 (SO4)3
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CrO42-
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Cr2 (SO3)3
-
-
42) For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order?
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Cr > Mn > Co > Fe
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Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
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Fe > Mn > Co > Cr
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Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
-
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43) Which of the two ions from the list given below that have the geometry that is explained by the same hybridization of orbitals, NO2−, NO3−, NH2−, NH4+, SCN−?
-
NO2− , and NH2−
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NO2− , and NO3−
-
NH4+ , and NO2−
-
SCN− and NH2−
-
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44) Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron?
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Phosphorus
-
Manganese
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Carbon
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Silicon
-
-
45) Which of the following is least likely to behave is Lewis base?
-
OH−
-
H2O
-
NH3
-
BF3
-
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1) Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?
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Sea-fan (Gorgonia)
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Saccharomyces
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Blue-green algae
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Cyanobacteria
-
-
2) Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in:
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Being imperforate
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Lacking nucleus
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Being lignified
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Having casparian strips
-
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3) Select the correct matching of the type of joint with the example in human skeletal system:
-
-
4) A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and a normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind?
-
0%
-
50%
-
75%
-
25%
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5) A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become white-coloured lime albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them?
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Embolised
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Etiolated
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Defoliated
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Mutated
-
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6) Function of filiform apparatus is to:
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Stimulate division of generative cell
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Produce nectar
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Guide entry of pollen tube
-
Recognise the suitable pollen at stigma
-
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7) Choose the correctly matched pair:
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Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue
-
Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue
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Cartilage – Loose connective tissue
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Tendon – Specialized connective tissue
-
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8) Forelimbs of cat and lizard used in walking and forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are examples of:
-
Adaptive radiation
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Homologous organs
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Convergent evolution
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Analogous organs
-
-
9) Which one of the following is a non-reducing carbohydrate?
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Sucrose
-
Lactose
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Ribose 5 – phosphate
-
Maltose
-
-
10) At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
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When the infected retro virus enters the host cells.
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When HIV damages large number of helper T – lymphocytes.
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When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.
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Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person.
-
-
11) What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?
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Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2
-
Methane, hydrogen sulphide and O2
-
Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
-
Methane and CO2 only
-
-
12) Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of:
-
Spirogyra
-
Chlamydomonas
-
Ulva
-
Rhodospirillum
-
-
13) Match the following and select the correct option:
-
-
14) A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the:
-
Trees are heavily infested.
-
Location is highly polluted.
-
Location is not polluted.
-
Trees are very healthy.
-
-
15) In-vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterised by:
-
Northern blotting
-
Electrophoresis and HPLC
-
Microscopy
-
PCR and RAPD
-
-
16) An alga which can be employed as food for human beings is:
-
Chlorella
-
Spirogyra
-
Polysiphonia
-
Ulothrix
-
-
17) Which one of the following growth regulators is known as ‘stress hormone’?
-
Ethylene
-
GA3
-
Indole acetic acid
-
Abscisic acid
-
-
18) The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis:
-
Zygotene
-
Diplotene
-
Diakinesis
-
Pachytene
-
-
19) The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net reactants or products. Arrows numbered 4, 8 and 12 can all be
-
NADH
-
ATP
-
H2O
-
FAD+ or FADH2
-
-
20) The most abundant intracellular cation is
-
Na+
-
Ca++
-
H+
-
K+
-
-
21) During seed germination its stored food is mobilised by
-
Ethylene
-
Cytokinin
-
ABA
-
Gibberellin
-
-
22) Which of the following criterion does not pertain to facilitated transport?
-
Requirement of special membrane proteins
-
High selectivity
-
Transport saturation
-
Uphill transport
-
-
23) The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is
-
NO2-
-
Ammonia
-
NO3-
-
Glutamate
-
-
24) Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?
-
Glucose-6-phosphate
-
Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
-
Pyruvic acid
-
Acetyl CoA
-
-
25) Which of the following statements is correct?
-
Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine.
-
Sporogenous tissue is haploid.
-
Endothecium produces microspores.
-
Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen.
-
-
26) Product of sexual reproduction generally generates
-
Longer viability of seeds
-
Prolonged dormancy
-
New genetic combination leading to variation
-
Larger biomass
-
-
27) Meiosis takes place in
-
Meiocyte
-
Conidia
-
Gemmule
-
Megaspore
-
-
28) Advantages of cleistogamy is
-
Higher genetic variability
-
More vigorous offspring
-
No dependence on pollinators
-
Vivipary
-
-
29) Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of
-
Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
-
Stamen and carpel on the same plant
-
Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant
-
Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant
-
-
30) Perisperm differs from endosperm in
-
Being a haploid tissue
-
Having no reserve food
-
Being a diploid tissue
-
Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms
-
-
31) Which of the following statements is not true for two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?
-
The genes may be in different chromosomes.
-
The genes are tightly linked.
-
The genes show independent assortment.
-
If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis.
-
-
32) Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as
-
Genetic flow
-
Genetic drift
-
Random mating
-
Genetic load
-
-
33) If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group : ‘AB’ blood group : ‘B’ blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio.
Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an example of
-
Codominance
-
Incomplete dominance
-
Partial dominance
-
Complete dominance
-
-
34) The process by which organism with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called
-
Natural selection
-
Convergent evolution
-
Non-random evolution
-
Adaptive radiation
-
-
35) The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by
-
Random mating
-
Lack of migration
-
Lack of mutation
-
Lack of random mating
-
-
36) Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?
-
Maize
-
Cotton
-
Brinjal
-
Soybean
-
-
37) Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in:
-
Cycas
-
Pinus
-
Sunflower
-
Maize
-
-
38) Closed vascular bundles lack:
-
Cambium
-
Pith
-
Ground tissue
-
Conjunctive tissues
-
-
39) Placentation in tomato and lemon is:
-
Marginal
-
Axile
-
Parietal
-
Free central
-
-
40) Companion cells are closely associated with
-
Trichomes
-
Guard cells
-
Sieve elements
-
Vessel elements
-
-
41) Vexillary aestivation is a characteristic of the family:-
-
Solanaceae
-
Brassicaceae
-
Fabaceae
-
Asteraceae
-
-
42) Phyllode is present in:
-
Australian Acacia
-
Opuntia
-
Asparagus
-
Euphorbia
-
-
43) The common bottle cork is a product of:
-
Xylem
-
Vascular cambium
-
Dermatogen
-
Phellogen
-
-
44) Which one of the following is a wrong statement?
-
Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membranes, certain nucleic acids and all proteins.
-
Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemoautotrophs.
-
Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing nitrogen in free-living state also.
-
Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live as aerobes under free-living conditions.
-
-
45) How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an inflorescence?
Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry
-
Two
-
Three
-
Four
-
Five
-
-
46) Cymose inflorescence is present in:-
-
Trifolium
-
Brassica
-
Solanum
-
Sesbania
-
-
47) Which one of the following is correctly matched?
-
Potassium - Readily immobilisation
-
Bakane of rice seedlings - F. Skoog
-
Passive transport of nutrients - ATP
-
Apoplast - Plasmodesmata
-
-
48) A process that marks important difference between C3 and C4 plants is:-
-
Photosynthesis
-
Photorespiration
-
Transpiration
-
Glycolysis
-
-
49) The correct sequence of cell organelles during photorespiration is:
-
Chloroplast – Peroxisome – Mitochondria
-
Chloroplast – Vacuole – Peroxisome
-
Chloroplast – Golgi bodies – Mitochondria
-
Chloroplast – Rough endoplasmic reticulum – Dictyosomes
-
-
50) The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to:-
-
Mesocarp
-
Embryo
-
Endosperm
-
Endocarp
-
-
51) The gynoecium consist of many free pistils in flowers of:
-
Papaver
-
Michelia
-
Aloe
-
Tomato
-
-
52) Which one of the following is correctly matched?
-
Chlamydomonas - Conidia
-
Yeast - Zoospores
-
Onion - Bulb
-
Ginger - Sucker
-
-
53) Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in:-
-
Castor
-
Maize
-
Papaya
-
Cucumber
-
-
54) Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in:-
-
Salvia
-
Fig
-
Commellina
-
Zostera
-
-
55) Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins?
-
IAA
-
Zeatin
-
Ethylene
-
ABA
-
-
56) Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in the host cells)
-
A toxic protein
-
Both sense and anti-sense RNA
-
A particular hormone
-
An antifeedant
-
-
57) How many plants in the list given below have marginal placentation?
Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, Sunn hemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, Pea, Tobacco, Lupin.
-
Three
-
Four
-
Five
-
Six
-
-
58) For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires
-
Copper
-
Zinc
-
Iron
-
Niacin
-
-
59) The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like
-
Vallisneria
-
Azolla
-
Typha
-
Salix
-
-
60) Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle?
-
Mesosome
-
Ribosome
-
Peroxisome
-
ER
-
-
61) In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of
-
Carbon dioxide
-
Butane
-
Methane
-
Propane
-
-
62) The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating
-
Adenosine deaminase deficiency
-
Diabetes mellitus
-
Chicken pox
-
Rheumatoid arthritis
-
-
63) Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised?
-
Alanine amino acid – contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.
-
Lecithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in the cell membrane.
-
Palmitic acid – an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.
-
Adenylic acid – adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.
-
-
64) Green revolution in India occurred during
-
1950’s
-
1960’s
-
1970’s
-
1980’s
-
-
65) Cuscuta is an example of
-
Endoparasitism
-
Ectoparasitism
-
Brood parasitism
-
Predation
-
-
66) Consider the following four statements (a–d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only.
a. Single cell Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein, minerals, vitamins, etc.
b. Body weight-wise the microorganism Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to produce several times more proteins than the cows per day.
c. Common button mushrooms are a very rich source of vitamin C.
d. A rice variety has been developed which is very rich in calcium.
-
Statements (a), (b)
-
Statements (c), (d)
-
Statements (a), (c) and (d)
-
Statements (b), (c) and (d)
-
-
67) How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs?
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolffia
-
Three
-
Four
-
Five
-
Six
-
-
68) Which one of the following categories of animals is correctly described with no single exception in it?
-
All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing.
-
All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermic).
-
All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side.
-
All sponges are marine and have collared cells.
-
-
69) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function?
A)
B)
C)
D)
-
-
70) Glandular epithelium is a specialised epithelium involved in secretion in the intestine.
-
-
71) Sacred groves are especially useful in
-
Conserving rare and threatened species
-
Generating environmental awareness
-
Preventing soil erosion
-
Ensuring year-round flow of water in rivers
-