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Why do the indifference curves slope downwards?

Asked by Topperlearning User 25th April 2016, 11:03 AM
Answered by Expert
Answer:

The indifference curve slope downwards because an increase in the amount of good 1 along the indifference curve is associated with a decrease in the amount of good 2, as the preferences are monotonic.

Answered by Expert 25th April 2016, 1:03 PM
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