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# repeat of the question..this was asked for my models. if the question is wrong, pl let me know..and what could the question probably be.

Asked by meera Menon 19th March 2013, 2:05 PM
apply the property F(a+b-x) so integral becomes
((pi/2 -x)cos^2(x)) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2

2I= I1+I2

I1=((pi/2)cos^2(x)) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2

Again applying same property in this I1=((pi/2)sin^2(x)) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2

Adding both 2(I1)=(pi/2) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2

this can be integrated by using half angle formulae of sin and cos in terms of tan and taking tan x/2 = t

now comin to I2

I2=x(sinn x- cos x) to limi o to pi/2

this can easily be integrated by part

Answered by Expert 19th March 2013, 10:05 PM
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