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repeat of the question..this was asked for my models. if the question is wrong, pl let me know..and what could the question probably be.

Asked by meera Menon 19th March 2013, 2:05 PM
Answered by Expert
Answer:
apply the property F(a+b-x) so integral becomes
((pi/2 -x)cos^2(x)) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2
 
now add both integrals so
2I= I1+I2
 
I1=((pi/2)cos^2(x)) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2
 
Again applying same property in this I1=((pi/2)sin^2(x)) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2
 
Adding both 2(I1)=(pi/2) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2
 
this can be integrated by using half angle formulae of sin and cos in terms of tan and taking tan x/2 = t
 
 
now comin to I2
 
I2=x(sinn x- cos x) to limi o to pi/2
 
this can easily be integrated by part
 
 
Answered by Expert 19th March 2013, 10:05 PM
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