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how come the calls in advance is 900in question 23 of ts grewal..

Asked by nalinityagi31 7th October 2017, 1:24 PM
Answered by Expert
The question specifies that shareholder with 300 shares paid his entire dues along with the first call money. The amount that was uncalled is the final call of Rs 3 per share and has been assumed to be received with the first call. This is the reason Rs 900 has been taken as Calls-in-Advance. 
Also, you can visit the mentioned link for the detailed solution. 
Hope this clarifies your doubt.
Answered by Expert 9th October 2017, 9:23 AM
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