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how come the calls in advance is 900in question 23 of ts grewal..

Asked by nalinityagi31 7th October 2017, 1:24 PM
Answered by Expert
Answer:
The question specifies that shareholder with 300 shares paid his entire dues along with the first call money. The amount that was uncalled is the final call of Rs 3 per share and has been assumed to be received with the first call. This is the reason Rs 900 has been taken as Calls-in-Advance. 
Also, you can visit the mentioned link for the detailed solution. 
 
Hope this clarifies your doubt.
Answered by Expert 9th October 2017, 9:23 AM
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