repeat of the question..this was asked for my models. if the question is wrong, pl let me know..and what could the question probably be.

Asked by meera Menon | 19th Mar, 2013, 02:05: PM

Expert Answer:

apply the property F(a+b-x) so integral becomes
((pi/2 -x)cos^2(x)) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2
 
now add both integrals so
2I= I1+I2
 
I1=((pi/2)cos^2(x)) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2
 
Again applying same property in this I1=((pi/2)sin^2(x)) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2
 
Adding both 2(I1)=(pi/2) /( sin(x)+cos(x)) the limit 0 to pi/2
 
this can be integrated by using half angle formulae of sin and cos in terms of tan and taking tan x/2 = t
 
 
now comin to I2
 
I2=x(sinn x- cos x) to limi o to pi/2
 
this can easily be integrated by part
 
 

Answered by  | 19th Mar, 2013, 10:05: PM

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