Question on property of integral f(x) limits of 0 and a =int f(a-x) limit 0 and a
Asked by sureshmt
| 18th Mar, 2012,
02:13: AM
Expert Answer:
Look In the satement :
RHS >Integral f(a-x) with limits of 0 and a, can also be evaluated as F(a-x) with the same limits
so it equal to F (a-x) from 0 and a
The above statemnt is incorrect , because when u integrate f(a-x) , you will get F(a-x)/-1 , u also devide the integral by derivative of the expression a-x , such as integration of cos2x is (sin2x)/2
RHS >Integral f(a-x) with limits of 0 and a, can also be evaluated as F(a-x) with the same limits
so it equal to F (a-x) from 0 and a
The above statemnt is incorrect , because when u integrate f(a-x) , you will get F(a-x)/-1 , u also devide the integral by derivative of the expression a-x , such as integration of cos2x is (sin2x)/2
Answered by
| 18th Mar, 2012,
08:45: AM
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