Question on property of integral f(x) limits of 0 and a =int f(a-x) limit 0 and a

Asked by sureshmt | 18th Mar, 2012, 02:13: AM

Expert Answer:

Look In the satement :
RHS >Integral f(a-x) with limits of 0 and a, can also be evaluated as F(a-x) with the same limits
so it equal to F (a-x) from 0 and a
The above statemnt is incorrect , because when u integrate f(a-x) , you will get F(a-x)/-1 , u also devide the integral by derivative of the expression a-x , such as integration of cos2x is (sin2x)/2 

Answered by  | 18th Mar, 2012, 08:45: AM

Queries asked on Sunday & after 7pm from Monday to Saturday will be answered after 12pm the next working day.