Question is :

Asked by spuneet23 | 15th Oct, 2010, 11:09: PM

Expert Answer:

Dear Student
Here is the solution of your question
Let f(x) = ax2+bx+c=0
Now F(0)=0 and F(1)=
So since F(0)=F(1)=0 So using Rolles theorem there exists cin [0,1] such that F'(x) =0
So answer is option (a)
Team Topperlearning

Answered by  | 20th Oct, 2010, 09:23: AM

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