Question is :

Dear Student

Here is the solution of your question

 

Let f(x) = ax²+bx+c=0

Now

Now F(0)=0 and F(1)=

So since F(0)=F(1)=0 So using Rolles theorem there exists cin [0,1] such that F'(x) =0

So answer is option (a)

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Team Topperlearning