prove that- i)sec?-1/sec?+1=sin2?/(1+cos?)2 ii)sec?-tan?/sec?+tan?=cos^2?/(1+sin?)^2 iii)1+cos?+sin?/1+cos?-sin?=1+sin?/cos? iv)sin?+1-cos?/cos?-1+sin?=1+sin?/cos? v)sin?/(sec?+tan?-1)+cos?/(cosec?+cot?-1)=1

Asked by Aditya Chakravarty | 15th Sep, 2013, 04:26: PM

Expert Answer:

Please ask one question at a time. The solution to your first question is as follows:
 

Answered by  | 15th Sep, 2013, 10:05: PM

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