I'd like to know y does a paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same mag.field ) when cooled and the reason for diamagnetism to be almost independent of temperature.
Asked by MAANASI.M | 13th Sep, 2014, 10:58: PM
When a paramagnetic sample is cooled, the tendency of the thermal agitation to disrupt the alignment of magnetic dipoles decreases.And due to this a paramagnetic material display greater magnetisation at lower temperature.
On the other hand the atoms of a diamagnetic sample do not have intrinsic magnetic dipole moment. Therefore random thermal motion of molecules does not affect the magnetism of the sample.Due to this fact diamagnetism is independent of temperature.
Answered by Jyothi Nair | 15th Sep, 2014, 09:37: AM
- what is geometric meridian and magnetic meridian?
- Hi tell which option.only one option per question can be correct not two.
- What is the dimensional formula for permeability
- THE EARTH'S MAGNETIC FIELD AT THE EQUATOR IS APPOROXIMATELY 0.4G. ESTIMATE THE EARTH'S DIPOLE.
- What is the c.g.s unit of magnetic induction and magnetic intensity?
- Discuss briefly the characteristic of diamagnetic, paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials. Also, give some examples of the three magnetic materials.
- What is Curie Temperature?
- What is Hysteresis Loop? What is its significance?
- A magnetic needle with magnetic moment 3.8 X 10-2 JT-1 is placed at 30o with the uniform magnetic field. Suppose a torque of 6.8 X 10-4 J acts on it, then, find the magnetic field.
- Suppose we have a magnetic needle of length 2l with magnetic moment ‘M’ and pole strength ‘m’. We divide it into two pieces from the middle. What will be the magnetic moment and pole strength of the resultant pieces?
Kindly Sign up for a personalised experience
- Ask Study Doubts
- Sample Papers
- Past Year Papers
- Textbook Solutions
Verify mobile number
Enter the OTP sent to your number