Is the following defination of stokes law correct : 
The force that retards a sphere moving through a viscous fluid is directly proportional to the velocity & the radius of the sphere , the viscosity of the fluid.  
 Falphav
Falphar
Falphacoeffecient of viscosity

Asked by sunil | 21st Nov, 2015, 09:58: PM

Expert Answer:

Yes, it is Stoke's law.
Stoke's found that when the body attains terminal velocity, the viscous force on the body is given by,

begin mathsize 14px style straight F equals 6 πηrν end style
where, begin mathsize 14px style straight eta end style, r and v denote the coefficient of viscosity of the fluid, radius of the spherical body and the terminal velocity attained by the body.

Answered by Faiza Lambe | 22nd Nov, 2015, 10:59: AM