If the mth term of A.P. be 1/n and nth term be 1/m then show that its (mn)th is term is 1.
Asked by
| 7th Mar, 2008,
03:12: PM
Expert Answer:
Answered by
| 7th Mar, 2008,
05:43: PM
Kindly Sign up for a personalised experience
- Ask Study Doubts
- Sample Papers
- Past Year Papers
- Textbook Solutions
Sign Up
Verify mobile number
Enter the OTP sent to your number
Change