if (sin?)(cos?) = 1, then prove that sin ? +cos ? = ?3

Asked by Renoy Gladson | 13th Jul, 2013, 03:18: PM

Expert Answer:

(sin ? +cos ?)^2 = sin^2?  + cos^2?  + 2sin? cos
= 1 + 2(1) (sin^2?  + cos^2? = 1 and also, its given that (sin?)(cos?) = 1)
= 3
 
Hence, (sin ? +cos ?)^2 = 3
sin ? +cos ?  = root(3)

Answered by  | 13th Jul, 2013, 07:17: PM

Queries asked on Sunday & after 7pm from Monday to Saturday will be answered after 12pm the next working day.