If lim f(x) as xtends to a= 1 and lim g(x) as x tends to a= infinity such that lim {f(x)-1}.g(x) exists, then,prove that lim{f(x)}^g(x) as x tends to a= e^ lim{f(x)-1}.g(x) as x tends to a

Asked by Dhanashree Deshpande | 8th Dec, 2013, 10:12: PM

Expert Answer:

Answered by Vimala Ramamurthy | 9th Dec, 2013, 10:28: PM

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