how come the calls in advance is 900in question 23 of ts grewal..

Asked by nalinityagi31 | 7th Oct, 2017, 01:24: PM

Expert Answer:

The question specifies that shareholder with 300 shares paid his entire dues along with the first call money. The amount that was uncalled is the final call of Rs 3 per share and has been assumed to be received with the first call. This is the reason Rs 900 has been taken as Calls-in-Advance. 
Also, you can visit the mentioned link for the detailed solution. 
 
Hope this clarifies your doubt.

Answered by Nikhil Sehgal | 9th Oct, 2017, 09:23: AM