how come the calls in advance is 900in question 23 of ts grewal..
Asked by nalinityagi31 | 7th Oct, 2017, 01:24: PM
The question specifies that shareholder with 300 shares paid his entire dues along with the first call money. The amount that was uncalled is the final call of Rs 3 per share and has been assumed to be received with the first call. This is the reason Rs 900 has been taken as Calls-in-Advance.
Also, you can visit the mentioned link for the detailed solution.
Hope this clarifies your doubt.
Answered by Nikhil Sehgal | 9th Oct, 2017, 09:23: AM
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