Question
Wed March 21, 2012 By:

Please prove the following:

Expert Reply
Tue March 27, 2012
If a-d is parallel to b-c , then (a-d)×(b-c) should be 0.
(a-d)× (b-c)=a×b+d×c-d×b-a×c
=a×b-c×d+ b×d-a×c=0
?therefore, vector a-d is parallel to vector b-c .
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