Question
Thu February 14, 2013 By: Lekha
 

on checking the bijectiivity of f(x)=x/1+modx why we are only taking -x for modx in denominator not in numerator while considering f(x)=f(y) for both x and y negative

Expert Reply
Sun February 17, 2013
While proving the one-one-ness of the given function, we will consider all the four possible cases.
It is explained as below.
 
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